Legislator
Legislator > Rachael Cabral-Guevara

State Senator
Rachael Cabral-Guevara
(R) - Wisconsin
Wisconsin Senate District 19
In Office - Started: 01/03/2023

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P.O. Box 7882
State Capitol, 2 E. Main St.
Madison, WI 53707
Phone: 608-266-0718

Bill Bill Name Summary Progress
AB80 Ratification of the Social Work Licensure Compact. (FE) This bill ratifies and enters Wisconsin into the Social Work Licensure Compact, which provides for the ability of a social worker to become eligible to practice in other compact states. Significant provisions of the compact include the following: 1. The creation of a Social Work Licensure Compact Commission, which includes one member or administrator of the licensure authorities of each member state. The commission has various powers and duties granted in the compact, including establishing bylaws, promulgating binding rules for the compact, hiring officers, electing or appointing employees, and establishing and electing an executive committee. The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on licensees of member states to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff. 2. The ability for a social worker who is licensed in a home state and satisfies certain other criteria to obtain a multistate license, which allows a social worker to practice social work in all other compact states (remote states) under a multistate authorization to practice. The compact specifies a number of requirements in order for an individual to obtain a social worker multistate license, including holding or being eligible for a social worker license in a home state, paying any required fees, and satisfying a number of criteria that are specific to the category of social work license the individual is seeking—bachelor[s, master[s, or clinical. A regulated social worker[s services in a remote state are subject to that member state[s regulatory authority. A remote state may take actions against a social worker[s multistate authorization to practice within that remote state, and if any adverse action is taken by a home state against a licensee[s multistate license, the social worker[s multistate authorization to practice in all other member states is deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the multistate license. 3. The ability of member states to issue subpoenas that are enforceable in other states. 4. The creation of a coordinated data system containing licensure and disciplinary action information on social workers. The compact requires all home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse actions against the license of a regulated social worker to include a statement that the regulated social worker[s multistate authorization to practice is deactivated in all member states until all conditions of the decision, order, or agreement are satisfied. A member state must submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom the compact is applicable as required by the rules of the commission. 5. Provisions regarding resolutions of disputes among member states and between member and nonmember states, including a process for termination of a state[s membership in the compact if the state defaults on its obligations under the compact. Since the compact has already been enacted by the minimum number of states required for it to become active, the compact becomes effective in this state upon enactment of the bill. The compact provides that it may be amended upon enactment of an amendment by all member states. A state may withdraw from the compact by repealing the statute authorizing the compact, but the compact provides that a withdrawal does not take effect until 180 days after the effective date of that repeal. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB152 Financial eligibility for the Alzheimer’s family and caregiver support program. (FE) Under current law, the Department of Health Services allocates funds to local agencies to assist eligible families with obtaining goods and services related to the care of a person with Alzheimer[s disease or another irreversible dementia. Currently, a person is financially eligible for the program if the joint income of the person with irreversible dementia and that person[s spouse, if any, is $48,000 per year or less. This bill repeals the financial eligibility requirement. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
SB164 Use of certified seed potatoes in planting potatoes and providing a penalty. (FE) Under current law, a person that plants five or more acres of potatoes in a year may only use seed potatoes that are certified by the College of Agricultural and Life Sciences at the University of Wisconsin-Madison under rules promulgated by the Department of Agriculture, Trade and Consumer Protection, or by an equivalent program in another state. DATCP may waive the certification requirement to use seed potatoes of a specific variety or genotype for a growing season if there are not enough certified seed potatoes of that variety or genotype reasonably available to growers during that calendar year and DATCP determines that the seed potatoes of that variety or genotype that will be used for planting do not pose a serious disease threat. A person that violates the certification requirement is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $150, plus $150 for each acre planted in violation. Additionally under current law, a person that plants five or more acres of potatoes in the state shall retain and allow inspection by DATCP of certain records regarding planted seed potatoes. A person that violates a record keeping requirement is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $200. LRB-2359/1 JAM:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 164 Under this bill, DATCP may include as a condition of a waiver certain restrictions as to permissible geographic boundaries or geographic limitations where a person may plant the waived seed potatoes. The bill also provides DATCP with the authority to order a person growing potatoes in violation of the law to remove and destroy any seed potatoes and potatoes involved in the violation. In addition, if a person does not remove and destroy any seed potatoes or potatoes as ordered by DATCP, DATCP or a cooperating local unit of government may take action to remove and destroy the seed potatoes or potatoes as ordered, and the cost of the action may be assessed, collected, and enforced against the person that failed to act as ordered as taxes for the person are assessed, collected, and enforced, or paid into the general fund if the mitigating action was taken by DATCP. A person ordered to remove and destroy any seed potatoes or potatoes is required to do so within 72 hours of receiving the order, unless DATCP extends the deadline. The orders that DATCP may issue under the bill are subject to the right of hearing before the department if requested within 10 days after the date of service of the order, and any party affected by the order may request a preliminary or informal hearing pending the scheduling and conduct of a full hearing. A person that plants potatoes in violation of the requirements of this bill is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $5,000, plus not more than $5,000 for each full acre planted in violation. A person that fails to retain, allow inspection of, or provide copies of records of potato planting as required under current law is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $5,000. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
AB154 Use of certified seed potatoes in planting potatoes and providing a penalty. (FE) Under current law, a person that plants five or more acres of potatoes in a year may only use seed potatoes that are certified by the College of Agricultural and Life Sciences at the University of Wisconsin-Madison under rules promulgated by the Department of Agriculture, Trade and Consumer Protection, or by an equivalent program in another state. DATCP may waive the certification requirement to use seed potatoes of a specific variety or genotype for a growing season if there are not enough certified seed potatoes of that variety or genotype reasonably available to growers during that calendar year and DATCP determines that the seed potatoes of that variety or genotype that will be used for planting do not pose a serious disease threat. A person that violates the certification requirement is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $150, plus $150 for each acre planted in violation. Additionally under current law, a person that plants five or more acres of potatoes in the state shall retain and allow inspection by DATCP of certain records regarding planted seed potatoes. A person that violates a record keeping requirement is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $200. Under this bill, DATCP may include as a condition of a waiver certain restrictions as to permissible geographic boundaries or geographic limitations where a person may plant the waived seed potatoes. The bill also provides DATCP with the authority to order a person growing potatoes in violation of the law to remove and destroy any seed potatoes and potatoes involved in the violation. In addition, if a person does not remove and destroy any seed potatoes or potatoes as ordered by DATCP, DATCP or a cooperating local unit of government may take action to remove and destroy the seed potatoes or potatoes as ordered, and the cost of the action may be assessed, collected, and enforced against the person that failed to act as ordered as taxes for the person are assessed, collected, and enforced, or paid into the general fund if the mitigating action was taken by DATCP. A person ordered to remove and destroy any seed potatoes or potatoes is required to do so within 72 hours of receiving the order, unless DATCP extends the deadline. The orders that DATCP may issue under the bill are subject to the right of hearing before the department if requested within 10 days after the date of service of the order, and any party affected by the order may request a preliminary or informal hearing pending the scheduling and conduct of a full hearing. A person that plants potatoes in violation of the requirements of this bill is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $5,000, plus not more than $5,000 for each full acre planted in violation. A person that fails to retain, allow inspection of, or provide copies of records of potato planting as required under current law is subject to a forfeiture of not more than $5,000. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB176 Financial eligibility for the Alzheimer’s family and caregiver support program. (FE) Under current law, the Department of Health Services allocates funds to local agencies to assist eligible families with obtaining goods and services related to the care of a person with Alzheimer[s disease or another irreversible dementia. Currently, a person is financially eligible for the program if the joint income of the person with irreversible dementia and that person[s spouse, if any, is $48,000 per year or less. This bill repeals the financial eligibility requirement. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB241 Required ratio of journeyworkers to apprentices in apprenticeship programs and contracts. Under current law, the Department of Workforce Development may not prescribe, enforce, or authorize a ratio of apprentices to journeyworkers for apprenticeship programs or apprentice contracts that requires more than one journeyworker for each apprentice. This bill increases the allowable ratio to one journeyworker to two apprentices. In Committee
AJR50 Recognizing the United States Army’s 250th birthday. Relating to: recognizing the United States Army[s 250th birthday. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
AB269 Delivery network couriers and transportation network drivers, Department of Financial Institutions’ approval to offer portable benefit accounts, providing for insurance coverage, modifying administrative rules related to accident and sickness insurance, and granting rule-making authority. (FE) DELIVERY AND TRANSPORTATION NETWORK COMPANIES General This bill provides that under specific circumstances, delivery network couriers and drivers for transportation network companies (application-based drivers) are not employees of the delivery network companies and transportation network companies (network companies) for the purposes of worker[s compensation insurance, minimum wage laws, and unemployment insurance. In the bill, Xapplication-based driverY is defined as a delivery network courier or participating driver who provides services through the online-enabled application, software, website, or system of a network company. Under the bill, if a network company does not engage in all of the following practices, an application-based driver is not an employee or agent of the company: 1) prescribe specific dates, times of day, or a minimum number of hours during which the driver must be logged into the network company[s online-enabled application, software, or system; 2) terminate the contract of the driver for not accepting a specific request for transportation or delivery service request; 3) restrict the driver from performing services through other network companies except while performing services through that network company; and 4) restrict the driver from working in any other lawful occupation or business. The bill provides that if this provision is held invalid by a court, the provisions regarding portable benefits accounts and group or blanket accident and sickness insurance coverage for application based drivers are invalid. Portable benefit accounts Under the bill, if certain conditions are satisfied, a financial services provider or other person may obtain approval from the Department of Financial Institutions to offer portable benefit accounts. A Xportable benefit accountY is an account administered by such an approved financial services provider or other person (portable benefit account provider) from which an individual may receive distributions for the purposes described below. Under the bill, a network company may offer portable benefit accounts. If an application-based driver meets certain eligibility requirements (eligible driver), a network company may contribute an amount equal to 4 percent of that driver[s quarterly earnings to a portable benefit account, and the driver may also contribute to the portable benefit account. Contributions to a portable benefit account by the account owner may be subtracted from the owner[s income for state income tax purposes. Under the bill, an eligible driver may receive a distribution from a portable benefit account for the following purposes: income due to an illness or accident or loss of work due to the birth or adoption of the driver[s child; 2) to transfer the money to an individual retirement account (IRA); 3) to pay vision, dental, or health insurance premiums; and 4) to compensate for lost income through no fault of the driver from work for a network company. A network company must ensure that the portable benefit account provider it selects offers at least three options for IRA providers and an eligible driver may not transfer money from a portable benefit account to an IRA in an amount exceeding the contribution limits under federal law. A portable benefit account provider may include an income replacement benefit to be made available to eligible drivers. A financial services provider may not commingle assets in a portable benefit account with other property, except in a common trust fund or common investment fund. Insurance coverage The bill provides that a network company may carry, provide, or otherwise make available group or blanket accident and sickness insurance for its application- based drivers. The bill requires a network company to make available, upon reasonable request, a copy of its group or blanket accident and sickness insurance policy. The bill specifies that the state[s worker[s compensation laws do not apply to such a policy. The bill also provides that a network company may carry, provide, or otherwise make available group or blanket occupational accident insurance to cover the medical expenses and lost income resulting from an injury suffered by an application-based driver while engaged on the network company[s online-enabled application, software, or system. The bill requires a network company to make available, upon reasonable request, a copy of its blanket occupational accident insurance policy. The bill requires that the policy provide, in aggregate, at least $1,000,000 of coverage for the medical expenses, short-term disability, long-term disability, and survivor benefits. The coverage must include at least $250,000 for medical expenses; weekly disability payments equal to two-thirds of an application- based driver[s average weekly income, subject to certain restrictions, for up to 104 weeks following an injury; and survivor benefits in an amount equal to an application-based driver[s average weekly income, subject to certain restrictions, multiplied by 104. The bill provides that if a claim is covered by occupational accident insurance maintained by more than one network company, the insurer of the network company against whom a claim is filed is entitled to a contribution for the pro rata share of coverage attributable to one or more other network companies. Under the bill, any benefit provided to an application-based driver under an occupational accident insurance policy is treated as amounts payable under a worker[s compensation law or disability benefit for the purpose of determining amounts payable under uninsured or underinsured motorist coverage. Because this bill relates to an exemption from state or local taxes, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Tax Exemptions for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Passed
SB264 Coverage of breast cancer screenings by the Medical Assistance program and health insurance policies and plans. (FE) This bill requires health insurance policies to provide coverage for diagnostic breast examinations and for supplemental breast screening examinations for an individual who is at increased risk of breast cancer, as determined in accordance with the most recent applicable guidelines of the National Comprehensive Cancer Network, or has heterogeneously or extremely dense breast tissue, as defined by the Breast Imaging-Reporting and Data System established by the American College of Radiology. Health insurance policies are referred to in the statutes as disability insurance policies. Self-insured governmental health plans are also required to LRB-3021/1 JPC&SWB:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 264 provide the coverage specified in the bill. The bill also requires coverage of those breast screenings by the Medical Assistance program, which is the state- administered Medicaid program that is jointly funded by the state and federal governments and that provides health services to individuals with limited financial resources. Under the bill, health insurance policies may not charge a cost-sharing amount for a supplemental breast screening examination or diagnostic breast examination. The limitation on cost-sharing does not apply to the extent that the limitation would result in ineligibility for a health savings account under the federal Internal Revenue Code. Health insurance policies are required under current law to cover two mammographic breast examinations to screen for breast cancer for a woman from ages 45 to 49 if certain criteria are satisfied. Health insurance policies must currently cover annual mammograms for a woman once she attains the age of 50. The coverage required under current law is required whether or not the woman shows any symptoms of breast cancer and may be subject to only the same exclusions and limitations, including cost sharing, that apply to other radiological examinations under the policy. The bill does not change or eliminate the current coverage requirements for mammograms, except that preferred provider plans are explicitly included in the current law and the bill[s requirements. This proposal may contain a health insurance mandate requiring a social and financial impact report under s. 601.423, stats. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB277 The expiration of administrative rules. (FE) This bill provides for the expiration of each chapter of the Wisconsin Administrative Code after seven years, unless the chapter is readopted by the agency through the readoption process established under the bill. Under current law, an agency may promulgate administrative rules when it is granted rule-making authority under the statutes. administrative rules remain in effect indefinitely unless repealed or amended by the agency or suspended by the Joint Committee for Review of Administrative Rules. This bill provides that each chapter of the code expires seven years after a rule that creates, or repeals and recreates, the chapter takes effect or after the chapter is readopted. The bill requires JCRAR to establish a schedule for the expiration of all existing code chapters that are in effect on the effective date of the bill. Under the LRB-2513/1 MED:cdc Once promulgated, 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 277 bill, in the year before a code chapter is set to expire, an agency may send to JCRAR and the appropriate standing committees a notice of its intention to readopt the chapter. If no member of JCRAR or the standing committees objects to the readoption notice, the chapter is considered readopted without further action. If any member of JCRAR or either standing committee objects to readoption of the chapter, the chapter expires on its expiration date unless the agency promulgates a rule to readopt the chapter using the standard rule-making process. Under the bill, JCRAR may extend the effective date of the chapter that is set to expire for up to one year to accommodate readoption of the chapter through the standard rule- making process. The bill also requires agencies to avoid in rules the use of words and phrases that are outdated or that are now understood to be derogatory or offensive. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB275 Statements of scope for administrative rules. (FE) Under current law, in order to promulgate a rule, an agency must submit a statement of scope for the proposed rule for review by the Department of Administration and approval by the governor. Once the governor approves the statement, the agency must send the approved statement of scope to the Legislative Reference Bureau for publication in the Wisconsin Administrative Register before continuing with the rule promulgation process. A statement of scope expires after 30 months, after which the agency may not promulgate any rule based on that statement of scope that has not been submitted for legislative review by the expiration date. This bill does the following: 1. Limits an agency to promulgating either a permanent or an emergency rule for a given statement of scope and requires the agency to specify in a statement of scope whether it is for a proposed emergency rule or for a proposed permanent rule. 2. Limits an agency to promulgating one permanent rule or one emergency rule per statement of scope. 3. Provides that a statement of scope for an emergency rule expires after six months and provides that when a statement of scope for an emergency rule expires, LRB-2515/1 MED:cjs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 275 an agency may not promulgate an emergency rule based upon that statement of scope. The bill retains the 30-month expiration under current law with respect to statements of scope for proposed permanent rules. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB276 Statements of scope for administrative rules. (FE) Under current law, in order to promulgate a rule, an agency must submit a statement of scope for the proposed rule for review by the Department of Administration and approval by the governor. Once the governor approves the statement, the agency must send the approved statement of scope to the Legislative Reference Bureau for publication in the Wisconsin Administrative Register before continuing with the rule promulgation process. A statement of scope expires after 30 months, after which the agency may not promulgate any rule based on that statement of scope that has not been submitted for legislative review by the expiration date. This bill does the following: 1. Limits an agency to promulgating either a permanent or an emergency rule for a given statement of scope and requires the agency to specify in a statement of scope whether it is for a proposed emergency rule or for a proposed permanent rule. 2. Limits an agency to promulgating one permanent rule or one emergency rule per statement of scope. 3. Provides that a statement of scope for an emergency rule expires after six months and provides that when a statement of scope for an emergency rule expires, an agency may not promulgate an emergency rule based upon that statement of scope. The bill retains the 30-month expiration under current law with respect to statements of scope for proposed permanent rules. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB305 Grants to mental health clubhouses and making an appropriation. (FE) This bill requires the Department of Health Services to award grants to clubhouses. A Xclubhouse,Y as defined in the bill, is a nonresidential rehabilitation program that provides support and services to individuals who have or are awaiting diagnosis for a mental illness but does not directly provide treatment or medical care for mental illnesses. To receive a grant, a clubhouse must include members who have been diagnosed with or are awaiting diagnosis for a mental illness and are under treatment for the condition, raise an amount of money itself to receive a matching grant, provide activities and services to members on a voluntary basis, have its own distinct physical space, and allow members to have the opportunity to participate in the administration and other operational functions of the clubhouse. The grant program sunsets at the end of the 2029-30 fiscal year. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB301 Grants to mental health clubhouses and making an appropriation. (FE) This bill requires the Department of Health Services to award grants to clubhouses. A Xclubhouse,Y as defined in the bill, is a nonresidential rehabilitation program that provides support and services to individuals who have or are awaiting diagnosis for a mental illness but does not directly provide treatment or medical care for mental illnesses. To receive a grant, a clubhouse must include members who have been diagnosed with or are awaiting diagnosis for a mental illness and are under treatment for the condition, raise an amount of money itself to receive a matching grant, provide activities and services to members on a voluntary basis, have its own distinct physical space, and allow members to have the opportunity to participate in the administration and other operational functions of the clubhouse. The grant program sunsets at the end of the 2029-30 fiscal year. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB337 Local grant writing and compliance assistance. (FE) This bill requires the Department of Revenue, in each year from 2026 through 2029, to provide grants of up to $5,000 to political subdivisions with populations of less than 7,500 to be used to obtain grant writing and compliance assistance services. These grants may be used to obtain services only for grants related to public works, transportation infrastructure, public safety, utility service, or cybersecurity. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB334 Designating the monarch butterfly as the state butterfly. Current law designates a variety of state symbols and requires the Wisconsin Blue Book to include information about them. This bill designates the monarch as the Wisconsin state butterfly and requires the Wisconsin Blue Book to include that information. In Committee
AJR59 Proclaiming June as Dairy Month in Wisconsin. Relating to: proclaiming June as Dairy Month in Wisconsin. Crossed Over
AB263 Coverage of breast cancer screenings by the Medical Assistance program and health insurance policies and plans. (FE) This bill requires health insurance policies to provide coverage for diagnostic breast examinations and for supplemental breast screening examinations for an individual who is at increased risk of breast cancer, as determined in accordance with the most recent applicable guidelines of the National Comprehensive Cancer Network, or has heterogeneously or extremely dense breast tissue, as defined by the Breast Imaging-Reporting and Data System established by the American College of Radiology. Health insurance policies are referred to in the statutes as disability insurance policies. Self-insured governmental health plans are also required to provide the coverage specified in the bill. The bill also requires coverage of those breast screenings by the Medical Assistance program, which is the state- administered Medicaid program that is jointly funded by the state and federal governments and that provides health services to individuals with limited financial resources. Under the bill, health insurance policies may not charge a cost-sharing amount for a supplemental breast screening examination or diagnostic breast examination. The limitation on cost-sharing does not apply to the extent that the limitation would result in ineligibility for a health savings account under the federal Internal Revenue Code. Health insurance policies are required under current law to cover two mammographic breast examinations to screen for breast cancer for a woman from ages 45 to 49 if certain criteria are satisfied. Health insurance policies must currently cover annual mammograms for a woman once she attains the age of 50. The coverage required under current law is required whether or not the woman shows any symptoms of breast cancer and may be subject to only the same exclusions and limitations, including cost sharing, that apply to other radiological examinations under the policy. The bill does not change or eliminate the current coverage requirements for mammograms, except that preferred provider plans are explicitly included in the current law and the bill[s requirements. This proposal may contain a health insurance mandate requiring a social and financial impact report under s. 601.423, stats. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB257 Advanced practice registered nurses, extending the time limit for emergency rule procedures, providing an exemption from emergency rule procedures, and granting rule-making authority. (FE) NURSING PRACTICE AND LICENSURE This bill makes various changes to practice, licensure, and certification requirements for nurses, which are administered by the Board of Nursing. Licensure of advanced practice registered nurses Under current law, a person who wishes to practice professional nursing must be licensed by the Board of Nursing as a registered nurse (RN). This bill creates an additional system of licensure for advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs), to be administered by the board. Under the bill, in order to apply for an APRN license, a person must 1) hold, or concurrently apply for, an RN license; 2) have completed an accredited graduate-level or postgraduate-level education program preparing the person to practice as an APRN in one of four recognized roles and hold a current national certification approved by the board; 3) possess malpractice liability insurance as provided in the bill; 4) pay a fee determined by the Department of Safety and Professional Services; and 5) satisfy certain other criteria specified in the bill. The bill also allows a person who has not completed an accredited education program described above to receive an APRN license if the person 1) on January 1, 2026, is both licensed as an RN in Wisconsin and practicing in one of the four recognized roles and 2) satisfies additional practice or education criteria established by the board. The bill also, however, automatically grants licenses to certain RNs, as further described below. The four recognized roles, as defined in the bill, are 1) certified nurse-midwife; 2) certified registered nurse anesthetist; 3) clinical nurse specialist; and 4) nurse practitioner. The bill requires the board, upon granting a person an APRN license, to also grant the person one or more specialty designations corresponding to the recognized role or roles for which the person qualifies. Under the bill, all APRNs, except APRNs with a certified nurse-midwife specialty designation, must practice in collaboration with a physician or dentist. However, under the bill, an APRN may practice without being supervised by a physician or dentist if the board verifies that the APRN has completed 3,840 hours of professional nursing in a clinical setting and has completed 3,840 clinical hours of advanced practice registered nursing practice in their recognized role while working with a physician or dentist during those 3,840 hours of practice. APRNs may count additional hours practiced as an APRN in collaboration with a physician or dentist towards the 3,840 required hours of professional nursing. APRNs with a certified nurse-midwife specialty designation are instead required, if they offer to deliver babies outside of a hospital setting, to file and keep current with the board a proactive plan for involving a hospital or a physician who has admitting privileges at a hospital in the treatment of patients with higher acuity or emergency care needs, as further described below. Regardless of whether an APRN has qualified to practice independently, the bill provides that an APRN may provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques only while working in a collaborative relationship with any physician who, through education, training, and experience, specializes in pain management. Alternatively, if an APRN has qualified to practice independently, the APRN may provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques in a hospital or clinic associated with a hospital. Further, an APRN may provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques if the APRN has qualified to practice independently and has privileges in a hospital to provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques without a collaborative relationship with a physician. The holder of an APRN license may append the title XA.P.R.N.Y to his or her name, as well as a title corresponding to whichever specialty designations that the person possesses. The bill prohibits any person from using the title XA.P.R.N.,Y and from otherwise indicating that he or she is an APRN, unless the person is licensed by the board as an APRN. The bill also prohibits the use of titles and abbreviations corresponding to a recognized role unless the person has a specialty designation for that role. The bill further prohibits any person licensed by the board from using, assuming, or appending to his or her name any title that is not granted under the nursing statutes unless the person holds another credential that entitles the person to use, assume, or append to his or her name the title or the person is permitted to use, assume, or append to his or her name the title under any other law of the state. However, the bill provides that a person who is licensed by the board and holds a doctorate degree is not prohibited from using, assuming, or appending to his or her name the title XdoctorY or any other words, letters, or abbreviations that represent that the person holds that doctorate degree or the field in which the degree was received. If a person who is licensed by the board uses, assumes, or appends to his or her name the title Xdoctor,Y the bill requires that person to also use, assume, or append to his or her name words, letters, or abbreviations that represent the field in which the person received the doctorate degree. Further, the bill provides that a person who holds a bachelor[s degree or master[s degree is not prohibited from using, assuming, or appending to his or her name any words, letters, or abbreviations that represent that the person holds that degree or the field in which the degree was received. The bill allows an APRN to delegate a task or order to another clinically trained health care worker if the task or order is within the scope of the APRN[s practice, the APRN is competent to perform the task or issue the order, and the APRN has reasonable evidence that the health care worker is minimally competent to perform the task or issue the order under the circumstances. The bill requires an APRN to adhere to professional standards when managing situations that are beyond the APRN[s expertise. Under the bill, when an APRN renews his or her APRN license, the board must grant the person the renewal of both the person[s RN license and the person[s APRN license. The bill requires all APRNs to complete continuing education requirements each biennium in clinical pharmacology or therapeutics relevant to the APRN[s area of practice and to satisfy certain other requirements when renewing a license. Practice of nurse-midwifery This bill repeals licensure and practice requirements specific to nurse- midwives and the practice of nurse-midwifery, including specific requirements to practice with an obstetrician. Under the bill, Xcertified nurse-midwifeY is one of the four recognized roles for APRNs, and a person who is licensed as a nurse-midwife under current law is automatically granted an APRN license with a certified nurse- midwife specialty designation. The bill otherwise allows nurse-midwives to be licensed as APRNs if they satisfy the licensure requirements, except that the bill also requires that a person applying for a certified nurse-midwife specialty designation be certified by the American Midwifery Certification Board. The bill also requires an APRN with a specialty designation as a certified nurse-midwife to file with the Board of Nursing, and obtain the board[s approval of, a plan for ensuring appropriate care or care transitions in treating certain patients if the APRN offers to deliver babies outside of a hospital setting. Prescribing authority Under current law, a person licensed as an RN may apply to the Board of Nursing for a certificate to issue prescription orders if the person meets certain requirements established by the board. An RN holding a certificate is subject to various practice requirements and limitations established by the board and must possess malpractice liability insurance in an amount determined by the board. The bill eliminates certificates to issue prescription orders and generally authorizes APRNs to issue prescription orders. A person who is certified to issue prescription orders under current law is automatically granted an APRN license with his or her appropriate specialty designation. RNs who are practicing in a recognized role on January 1, 2026, but who do not hold a certificate to issue prescription orders on that date and who are granted an APRN license under the bill may not issue prescription orders. As under current law, an APRN issuing prescription orders is subject to various practice requirements and limitations established by the board. The bill repeals a provision concerning the ability of advanced practice nurses who are certified to issue prescription orders and who are required to work in collaboration with or under the supervision of a physician to obtain and practice under a federal waiver to dispense narcotic drugs to individuals for addiction treatment. Malpractice liability insurance The bill requires all APRNs to maintain malpractice liability insurance coverage evidenced by personal liability coverage in the amounts specified under current law for physicians and nurse anesthetists or coverage under a group liability policy providing individual coverage for the APRN in the amounts specified under current law for physicians and nurse anesthetists. Additionally, the bill requires APRNs who have qualified to practice independently and who practice outside a collaborative or employment relationship to participate in the Injured Patients and Families Compensation Fund. The Injured Patients and Families Compensation Fund provides excess medical malpractice coverage for health care providers who participate in the fund and meet all other participation requirements, which includes maintaining malpractice liability insurance in coverage amounts specified under current law. OTHER CHANGES The bill makes numerous other changes throughout the statutes relating to APRNs, including various terminology changes. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
SB258 Advanced practice registered nurses, extending the time limit for emergency rule procedures, providing an exemption from emergency rule procedures, and granting rule-making authority. (FE) NURSING PRACTICE AND LICENSURE This bill makes various changes to practice, licensure, and certification requirements for nurses, which are administered by the Board of Nursing. Licensure of advanced practice registered nurses Under current law, a person who wishes to practice professional nursing must be licensed by the Board of Nursing as a registered nurse (RN). This bill creates an additional system of licensure for advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs), to be administered by the board. Under the bill, in order to apply for an APRN license, a person must 1) hold, or concurrently apply for, an RN license; 2) have completed an accredited graduate-level or postgraduate-level education program preparing the person to practice as an APRN in one of four recognized roles and hold a current national certification approved by the board; 3) possess malpractice liability insurance as provided in the bill; 4) pay a fee determined by the Department of Safety and Professional Services; and 5) satisfy certain other criteria specified in the bill. The bill also allows a person who has not completed an accredited education program described above to receive an APRN license if the person 1) on January 1, 2026, is both licensed as an RN in Wisconsin and practicing in one of the four recognized roles and 2) satisfies additional practice or education criteria established by the board. The bill also, however, automatically grants licenses to certain RNs, as further described below. The four recognized roles, as defined in the bill, are 1) certified nurse-midwife; 2) certified registered nurse anesthetist; 3) clinical nurse specialist; and 4) nurse practitioner. The bill requires the board, upon granting a person an APRN license, to also grant the person one or more specialty designations corresponding to the recognized role or roles for which the person qualifies. Under the bill, all APRNs, except APRNs with a certified nurse-midwife specialty designation, must practice in collaboration with a physician or dentist. However, under the bill, an APRN may practice without being supervised by a physician or dentist if the board verifies that the APRN has completed 3,840 hours of professional nursing in a clinical setting and has completed 3,840 clinical hours of advanced practice registered nursing practice in their recognized role while working with a physician or dentist during those 3,840 hours of practice. APRNs may count additional hours practiced as an APRN in collaboration with a physician or dentist towards the 3,840 required hours of professional nursing. APRNs with a LRB-1565/1 JPC:emw&wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 258 certified nurse-midwife specialty designation are instead required, if they offer to deliver babies outside of a hospital setting, to file and keep current with the board a proactive plan for involving a hospital or a physician who has admitting privileges at a hospital in the treatment of patients with higher acuity or emergency care needs, as further described below. Regardless of whether an APRN has qualified to practice independently, the bill provides that an APRN may provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques only while working in a collaborative relationship with any physician who, through education, training, and experience, specializes in pain management. Alternatively, if an APRN has qualified to practice independently, the APRN may provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques in a hospital or clinic associated with a hospital. Further, an APRN may provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques if the APRN has qualified to practice independently and has privileges in a hospital to provide treatment of pain syndromes through the use of invasive techniques without a collaborative relationship with a physician. The holder of an APRN license may append the title XA.P.R.N.Y to his or her name, as well as a title corresponding to whichever specialty designations that the person possesses. The bill prohibits any person from using the title XA.P.R.N.,Y and from otherwise indicating that he or she is an APRN, unless the person is licensed by the board as an APRN. The bill also prohibits the use of titles and abbreviations corresponding to a recognized role unless the person has a specialty designation for that role. The bill further prohibits any person licensed by the board from using, assuming, or appending to his or her name any title that is not granted under the nursing statutes unless the person holds another credential that entitles the person to use, assume, or append to his or her name the title or the person is permitted to use, assume, or append to his or her name the title under any other law of the state. However, the bill provides that a person who is licensed by the board and holds a doctorate degree is not prohibited from using, assuming, or appending to his or her name the title XdoctorY or any other words, letters, or abbreviations that represent that the person holds that doctorate degree or the field in which the degree was received. If a person who is licensed by the board uses, assumes, or appends to his or her name the title Xdoctor,Y the bill requires that person to also use, assume, or append to his or her name words, letters, or abbreviations that represent the field in which the person received the doctorate degree. Further, the bill provides that a person who holds a bachelor[s degree or master[s degree is not prohibited from using, assuming, or appending to his or her name any words, letters, or abbreviations that represent that the person holds that degree or the field in which the degree was received. The bill allows an APRN to delegate a task or order to another clinically trained health care worker if the task or order is within the scope of the APRN[s practice, the APRN is competent to perform the task or issue the order, and the APRN has reasonable evidence that the health care worker is minimally competent LRB-1565/1 JPC:emw&wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 258 to perform the task or issue the order under the circumstances. The bill requires an APRN to adhere to professional standards when managing situations that are beyond the APRN[s expertise. Under the bill, when an APRN renews his or her APRN license, the board must grant the person the renewal of both the person[s RN license and the person[s APRN license. The bill requires all APRNs to complete continuing education requirements each biennium in clinical pharmacology or therapeutics relevant to the APRN[s area of practice and to satisfy certain other requirements when renewing a license. Practice of nurse-midwifery This bill repeals licensure and practice requirements specific to nurse- midwives and the practice of nurse-midwifery, including specific requirements to practice with an obstetrician. Under the bill, Xcertified nurse-midwifeY is one of the four recognized roles for APRNs, and a person who is licensed as a nurse-midwife under current law is automatically granted an APRN license with a certified nurse- midwife specialty designation. The bill otherwise allows nurse-midwives to be licensed as APRNs if they satisfy the licensure requirements, except that the bill also requires that a person applying for a certified nurse-midwife specialty designation be certified by the American Midwifery Certification Board. The bill also requires an APRN with a specialty designation as a certified nurse-midwife to file with the Board of Nursing, and obtain the board[s approval of, a plan for ensuring appropriate care or care transitions in treating certain patients if the APRN offers to deliver babies outside of a hospital setting. Prescribing authority Under current law, a person licensed as an RN may apply to the Board of Nursing for a certificate to issue prescription orders if the person meets certain requirements established by the board. An RN holding a certificate is subject to various practice requirements and limitations established by the board and must possess malpractice liability insurance in an amount determined by the board. The bill eliminates certificates to issue prescription orders and generally authorizes APRNs to issue prescription orders. A person who is certified to issue prescription orders under current law is automatically granted an APRN license with his or her appropriate specialty designation. RNs who are practicing in a recognized role on January 1, 2026, but who do not hold a certificate to issue prescription orders on that date and who are granted an APRN license under the bill may not issue prescription orders. As under current law, an APRN issuing prescription orders is subject to various practice requirements and limitations established by the board. The bill repeals a provision concerning the ability of advanced practice nurses who are certified to issue prescription orders and who are required to work in collaboration with or under the supervision of a physician to obtain and practice LRB-1565/1 JPC:emw&wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 258 under a federal waiver to dispense narcotic drugs to individuals for addiction treatment. Malpractice liability insurance The bill requires all APRNs to maintain malpractice liability insurance coverage evidenced by personal liability coverage in the amounts specified under current law for physicians and nurse anesthetists or coverage under a group liability policy providing individual coverage for the APRN in the amounts specified under current law for physicians and nurse anesthetists. Additionally, the bill requires APRNs who have qualified to practice independently and who practice outside a collaborative or employment relationship to participate in the Injured Patients and Families Compensation Fund. The Injured Patients and Families Compensation Fund provides excess medical malpractice coverage for health care providers who participate in the fund and meet all other participation requirements, which includes maintaining malpractice liability insurance in coverage amounts specified under current law. OTHER CHANGES The bill makes numerous other changes throughout the statutes relating to APRNs, including various terminology changes. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB201 Extortion, sexual extortion, and providing a penalty. This bill creates a new crime for activity known as Xsextortion.Y Under the bill, it is a generally a Class I felony for a person to do any of the following: 1. Threaten to injure the property or reputation of another to coerce that person to engage in sexual conduct or to produce an intimate representation. 2. Threaten to commit violence against another to coerce that person to engage in sexual conduct or to produce an intimate representation. 3. Threaten to distribute an intimate representation of another person with intent to coerce that person to engage in sexual conduct, produce an intimate representation, or to provide payment of money, property, services, or anything of value, or to do or refrain from doing any act against that person[s will. Under the bill, such a violation is a Class H felony if the victim, as a result of the violation, engages in sexual conduct, produces an intimate representation, provides the payment of money, property, services, or any other thing of value, or suffers great bodily harm or if the victim is under age 18 and the defendant is not more than four years older than the victim, and such a violation is a Class G felony if the defendant was previously convicted of a sexually violent offense, the violation was committed during the course of a child abduction, or the victim is under age 18 and the defendant is more than four years older than the victim. Additionally, the bill provides that a person may be prosecuted for felony murder if the person commits extortion or sexual extortion and as a result of the violation causes the death of the victim. Under current law, extortion generally is punishable as a Class I felony, and the penalty for felony murder is imprisonment for up to 15 years longer than the maximum term of imprisonment for the crime that caused the victim[s death. Under current law, a Class I felony is punishable by a fine of up to $10,000 or imprisonment for up to three years and six months, or both; a Class H felony is punishable by a fine of up to $10,000 or imprisonment for up to six years, or both; and a Class G felony is punishable by a fine of up to $25,000 or imprisonment for up to 10 years, or both. This bill also provides that a crime victim, or the victim[s family member, is eligible for payment from the Department of Justice[s crime victim compensation fund if the crime victim is a victim of extortion or sexual extortion and is injured or dies as a result of the crime and provides that a crime victim, or the victim[s family member, may be compensated for death or injury that results from suicide or attempted suicide if the crime was a substantial causal factor in the victim[s suicide or attempted suicide. Because this bill creates a new crime or revises a penalty for an existing crime, the Joint Review Committee on Criminal Penalties may be requested to prepare a report. Crossed Over
SB189 An optional final hearing by affidavit for the dissolution of a marriage. This bill allows a court to enter a judgment of divorce or legal separation based on an affidavit signed by each party to the action (final hearing by affidavit). Under current law, all hearings and trials to determine whether a divorce or legal separation must be granted must be before the court entering the judgment. In order for a final hearing by affidavit to be granted, the parties to the divorce or legal separation action must 1) be represented by counsel or have worked with a lawyer mediator with special skills and training in dispute resolution who is registered on the case and drafted and filed the signed stipulation related to divorce or legal separation, 2) sign and file any stipulation required by the court, and 3) submit the signed affidavit, which must meet a number of requirements, including that the affidavit waives the right to a hearing in person before a court. Crossed Over
SB182 Emergency medical services education, tuition and materials reimbursement for emergency medical responders and emergency medical services practitioners, and a live 911 pilot program. (FE) Emergency medical services education This bill requires the Technical College System Board to provide grants to technical colleges that provide emergency medical services courses that train and prepare individuals for initial certification or initial licensure as an emergency medical responder or an emergency medical services practitioner. No grants may be awarded to a technical college for the emergency medical services courses if admission priority to the course is given to residents based on the technical college district in which the resident lives. Tuition and materials costs for emergency medical responders and emergency medical services practitioners The bill requires the Higher Educational Aids Board to develop a program to reimburse individuals or their employers for the cost of tuition and materials necessary for the individual to qualify for initial certification or initial licensure as an emergency medical responder or an emergency medical services practitioner. To LRB-2519/1 JAM:cjs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 182 be eligible for reimbursement for the costs necessary to qualify for an initial certification or license, the individual must satisfactorily complete any required course of instruction, pass any required examination, receive a certification or license from DHS, and apply to HEAB for reimbursement on a form prescribed by HEAB. Live 911 pilot program The bill directs the Department of Military Affairs, through a pilot program, to distribute moneys through grants to enable real-time video and multimedia communications between public safety answering points and individuals who call for emergency services. Further, the bill requires DMA to annually report to the legislature on the performance of the pilot program, including information on outcomes from the pilot program, the number of responses from dispatch that were altered due to increased information from the pilot program, and any cost savings associated with the pilot program. The bill does not require DMA to submit a report to the legislature in any year that DMA does not award any moneys through grants for the pilot program. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
SB94 Civil action for injury or damages resulting from riot or vandalism, participation in a riot, prohibiting certain limitations or restrictions on law enforcement responses to riot or vandalism activity, and providing a penalty. This bill makes it a Class I felony to urge, promote, organize, encourage, or instigate others to commit a riot and a Class H felony to intentionally commit an act of violence while participating in a riot. The bill defines a XriotY as a public disturbance that involves an act of violence, as part of an assembly of at least three persons, that constitutes a clear and present danger of property damage or personal injury or a threat of an act of violence, as part of an assembly of at least three persons having the ability of immediate execution of the threat, if the threatened action constitutes a clear and present danger of property damage or personal injury. The bill establishes a civil cause of action for any person who suffers injury or loss to person or property as a result of conduct that violates the criminal prohibitions on vandalism or participation in a riot. The bill allows a person to bring a civil action against a person who committed the violation and against any person or organization that provided material support or resources with the intent LRB-2144/1 SWB:skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 94 that such support or resources would be used to perpetrate the offense. The person bringing the action may obtain an order requiring the offender to fix or repair the damage caused to the person[s property if certain requirements set forth in the bill are met. The bill also prohibits any government official with authority over any law enforcement agency or law enforcement officers from limiting or restricting the authority of the agency to have its officers, or certain officers, arrest or detain individuals involved in a riot or vandalism activity or take action to quell a riot or vandalism activity. The bill also prohibits any government official with authority over any law enforcement agency from limiting or restricting the authority of law enforcement officers, or certain designated law enforcement officers, to arrest or detain individuals involved in a riot or vandalism activity or to take action to quell a riot or vandalism activity. Finally, the bill provides that no government official, law enforcement agency, or law enforcement officer may discharge, demote, reassign, or take any punitive action against any employee because the employee made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing regarding a violation of the prohibitions on government officials set forth in the bill. Because this bill creates a new crime or revises a penalty for an existing crime, the Joint Review Committee on Criminal Penalties may be requested to prepare a report. Crossed Over
SB10 Access to public high schools for military recruiters. In general, federal law requires local educational agencies, such as school boards and charter schools, that receive federal assistance under the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 to provide military recruiters the same access to secondary school students that the local educational agencies provide to postsecondary educational institutions or to prospective employers. This bill requires school boards and governing boards of charter schools to, in addition to complying with federal law, specifically allow military recruiters access to common areas in high schools and to allow access during a school day and to school- sanctioned events. Nothing in the bill requires a school board or governing board of a charter school to provide a military recruiter access to a high school classroom during instructional time. Crossed Over
AB198 Emergency medical services education, tuition and materials reimbursement for emergency medical responders and emergency medical services practitioners, and a live 911 pilot program. (FE) Emergency medical services education This bill requires the Technical College System Board to provide grants to technical colleges that provide emergency medical services courses that train and prepare individuals for initial certification or initial licensure as an emergency medical responder or an emergency medical services practitioner. No grants may be awarded to a technical college for the emergency medical services courses if admission priority to the course is given to residents based on the technical college district in which the resident lives. Tuition and materials costs for emergency medical responders and emergency medical services practitioners The bill requires the Higher Educational Aids Board to develop a program to reimburse individuals or their employers for the cost of tuition and materials necessary for the individual to qualify for initial certification or initial licensure as an emergency medical responder or an emergency medical services practitioner. To be eligible for reimbursement for the costs necessary to qualify for an initial certification or license, the individual must satisfactorily complete any required course of instruction, pass any required examination, receive a certification or license from DHS, and apply to HEAB for reimbursement on a form prescribed by HEAB. Live 911 pilot program The bill directs the Department of Military Affairs, through a pilot program, to distribute moneys through grants to enable real-time video and multimedia communications between public safety answering points and individuals who call for emergency services. Further, the bill requires DMA to annually report to the legislature on the performance of the pilot program, including information on outcomes from the pilot program, the number of responses from dispatch that were altered due to increased information from the pilot program, and any cost savings associated with the pilot program. The bill does not require DMA to submit a report to the legislature in any year that DMA does not award any moneys through grants for the pilot program. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB189 An optional final hearing by affidavit for the dissolution of a marriage. This bill allows a court to enter a judgment of divorce or legal separation based on an affidavit signed by each party to the action (final hearing by affidavit). Under current law, all hearings and trials to determine whether a divorce or legal separation must be granted must be before the court entering the judgment. In order for a final hearing by affidavit to be granted, the parties to the divorce or legal separation action must 1) be represented by counsel or have worked with a lawyer mediator with special skills and training in dispute resolution who is registered on the case and drafted and filed the signed stipulation related to divorce or legal separation, 2) sign and file any stipulation required by the court, and 3) submit the signed affidavit, which must meet a number of requirements, including that the affidavit waives the right to a hearing in person before a court. In Committee
AB173 Regulation of pharmacy benefit managers, fiduciary and disclosure requirements on pharmacy benefit managers, and application of prescription drug payments to health insurance cost-sharing requirements. (FE) This bill makes several changes to the regulation of pharmacy benefit managers and their interactions with pharmacies and pharmacists. Under current law, pharmacy benefit managers are generally required to be licensed as a pharmacy benefit manager or an employee benefit plan administrator by the commissioner of insurance. A pharmacy benefit manager is an entity that contracts to administer or manage prescription drug benefits on behalf of an insurer, a cooperative, or another entity that provides prescription drug benefits to Wisconsin residents. Major provisions of the bill are summarized below. Pharmacy benefit manager regulation The bill requires a pharmacy benefit manager to pay a pharmacy or pharmacist a professional dispensing fee at a rate not less than is paid by the state under the Medical Assistance program for each pharmaceutical product that the pharmacy or pharmacist dispenses to an individual. The professional dispensing fee is required to be paid in addition to the amount the pharmacy benefit manager reimburses the pharmacy or pharmacist for the cost of the pharmaceutical product that the pharmacy or pharmacist dispenses. The Medical Assistance program is a joint state and federal program that provides health services to individuals who have limited financial resources. The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from assessing, charging, or collecting from a pharmacy or pharmacist any form of remuneration that passes from the pharmacy or pharmacist to the pharmacy benefit manager including claim-processing fees, performance-based fees, network-participation fees, or accreditation fees. Further, under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager may not use any certification or accreditation requirement as a determinant of pharmacy network participation that is inconsistent with, more stringent than, or in addition to the federal requirements for licensure as a pharmacy and the requirements for licensure as a pharmacy provided under state law. The bill requires a pharmacy benefit manager to allow a participant or beneficiary of a pharmacy benefits plan or program that the pharmacy benefit manager serves to use any pharmacy or pharmacist in this state that is licensed to dispense the pharmaceutical product that the participant or beneficiary seeks to obtain if the pharmacy or pharmacist accepts the same terms and conditions that the pharmacy benefit manager establishes for at least one of the networks of pharmacies or pharmacists that the pharmacy benefit manager has established to serve individuals in the state. A pharmacy benefit manager may establish a preferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists and a nonpreferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists; however, under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager may not prohibit a pharmacy or pharmacist from participating in either type of network provided that the pharmacy or pharmacist is licensed by this state and the federal government and accepts the same terms and conditions that the pharmacy benefit manager establishes for other pharmacies or pharmacists participating in the network that the pharmacy or pharmacist wants to join. Under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager may not charge a participant or beneficiary of a pharmacy benefits plan or program that the pharmacy benefit manager serves a different copayment obligation or additional fee, or provide any inducement or financial incentive, for the participant or beneficiary to use a pharmacy or pharmacist in a particular network of pharmacies or pharmacists that the pharmacy benefit manager has established to serve individuals in the state. Further, the bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager, third-party payer, or health benefit plan from excluding a pharmacy or pharmacist from its network because the pharmacy or pharmacist serves less than a certain portion of the population of the state or serves a population living with certain health conditions. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager may neither prohibit a pharmacy or pharmacist that dispenses a pharmaceutical product from, nor penalize a pharmacy or pharmacist that dispenses a pharmaceutical product for, informing an individual about the cost of the pharmaceutical product, the amount in reimbursement that the pharmacy or pharmacist receives for dispensing the pharmaceutical product, or any difference between the cost to the individual under the individual[s pharmacy benefits plan or program and the cost to the individual if the individual purchases the pharmaceutical product without making a claim for benefits under the individual[s pharmacy benefits plan or program. The bill prohibits any pharmacy benefit manager or any insurer or self- insured health plan from requiring, or penalizing a person who is covered under a health insurance policy or plan for using or for not using, a specific retail, mail- order, or other pharmacy provider within the network of pharmacy providers under the policy or plan. Prohibited penalties include an increase in premium, deductible, copayment, or coinsurance. The bill requires pharmacy benefit managers to remit payment for a claim to a pharmacy or pharmacist within 30 days from the day that the claim is submitted to the pharmacy benefit manager by the pharmacy or pharmacist. Pharmaceutical product reimbursements The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager that uses a maximum allowable cost list must include all of the following information on the list: 1) the average acquisition cost of each pharmaceutical product and the cost of the pharmaceutical product set forth in the national average drug acquisition cost data published by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services; 2) the average manufacturer price of each pharmaceutical product; 3) the average wholesale price of each pharmaceutical product; 4) the brand effective rate or generic effective rate for each pharmaceutical product; 5) any applicable discount indexing; 6) the federal upper limit for each pharmaceutical product published by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services; pharmaceutical product; and 8) any other terms that are used to establish the maximum allowable costs. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager may place or continue a particular pharmaceutical product on a maximum allowable cost list only if the pharmaceutical product 1) is listed as a drug product equivalent or is rated by a nationally recognized reference as Xnot ratedY or Xnot availableY; 2) is available for purchase by all pharmacies and pharmacists in the state from national or regional pharmaceutical wholesalers operating in the state; and 3) has not been determined by the drug manufacturer to be obsolete. Further, the bill provides that any pharmacy benefit manager that uses a maximum allowable cost list must provide access to the maximum allowable cost list to each pharmacy or pharmacist subject to the maximum allowable cost list, update the maximum allowable cost list on a timely basis, provide a process for a pharmacy or pharmacist subject to the maximum allowable cost list to receive notification of an update to the maximum allowable cost list, and update the maximum allowable cost list no later than seven days after the pharmacy acquisition cost of the pharmaceutical product increases by 10 percent or more from at least 60 percent of the pharmaceutical wholesalers doing business in the state or there is a change in the methodology on which the maximum allowable cost list is based or in the value of a variable involved in the methodology. A maximum allowable cost list is a list of pharmaceutical products that sets forth the maximum amount that a pharmacy benefit manager will pay to a pharmacy or pharmacist for dispensing a pharmaceutical product. A maximum allowable cost list may directly establish maximum costs or may set forth a method for how the maximum costs are calculated. The bill further provides that a pharmacy benefit manager that uses a maximum allowable cost list must provide a process for a pharmacy or pharmacist to appeal and resolve disputes regarding claims that the maximum payment amount for a pharmaceutical product is below the pharmacy acquisition cost. A pharmacy benefit manager that receives an appeal from or on behalf of a pharmacy or pharmacist under this bill is required to resolve the appeal and notify the pharmacy or pharmacist of the pharmacy benefit manager[s determination no later than seven business days after the appeal is received. If the pharmacy benefit manager grants the relief requested in the appeal, the bill requires the pharmacy benefit manager to make the requested change in the maximum allowable cost, allow the pharmacy or pharmacist to reverse and rebill the relevant claim, provide to the pharmacy or pharmacist the national drug code number published in a directory by the federal Food and Drug Administration on which the increase or change is based, and make the change effective for each similarly situated pharmacy or pharmacist subject to the maximum allowable cost list. If the pharmacy benefit manager denies the relief requested in the appeal, the bill requires the pharmacy benefit manager to provide the pharmacy or pharmacist a reason for the denial, the national drug code number published in a directory by the FDA for the pharmaceutical product to which the claim relates, and the name of a national or regional wholesaler that has the pharmaceutical product currently in stock at a price below the amount specified in the pharmacy benefit manager[s maximum allowable cost list. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager may not deny a pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s appeal if the relief requested in the appeal relates to the maximum allowable cost for a pharmaceutical product that is not available for the pharmacy or pharmacist to purchase at a cost that is below the pharmacy acquisition cost from the pharmaceutical wholesaler from which the pharmacy or pharmacist purchases the majority of pharmaceutical products for resale. If a pharmaceutical product is not available for a pharmacy or pharmacist to purchase at a cost that is below the pharmacy acquisition cost from the pharmaceutical wholesaler from which the pharmacy or pharmacist purchases the majority of pharmaceutical products for resale, the pharmacy benefit manager must revise the maximum allowable cost list to increase the maximum allowable cost for the pharmaceutical product to an amount equal to or greater than the pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s pharmacy acquisition cost and allow the pharmacy or pharmacist to reverse and rebill each claim affected by the pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s inability to procure the pharmaceutical product at a cost that is equal to or less than the maximum allowable cost that was the subject of the pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s appeal. The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from reimbursing a pharmacy or pharmacist in the state an amount less than the amount that the pharmacy benefit manager reimburses a pharmacy benefit manager affiliate for providing the same pharmaceutical product. Under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager affiliate is a pharmacy or pharmacist that is an affiliate of a pharmacy benefit manager. Finally, the bill allows a pharmacy or pharmacist to decline to provide a pharmaceutical product to an individual or pharmacy benefit manager if, as a result of a maximum allowable cost list, the pharmacy or pharmacist would be paid less than the pharmacy acquisition cost of the pharmacy or pharmacist providing the pharmaceutical product. Drug formularies This bill makes several changes with respect to drug formularies. Under current law, a disability insurance policy that offers a prescription drug benefit, a self-insured health plan that offers a prescription drug benefit, or a pharmacy benefit manager acting on behalf of a disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan must provide to an enrollee advanced written notice of a formulary change that removes a prescription drug from the formulary of the policy or plan or that reassigns a prescription drug to a benefit tier for the policy or plan that has a higher deductible, copayment, or coinsurance. The advanced written notice of a formulary change must be provided no fewer than 30 days before the expected date of the removal or reassignment. This bill provides that a disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan that provides a prescription drug benefit shall make the formulary and all drug costs associated with the formulary available to plan sponsors and individuals prior to selection or enrollment. Further, the bill provides that no disability insurance policy, self-insured health plan, or pharmacy benefit manager acting on behalf of a disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan may remove a prescription drug from the formulary except at the time of coverage renewal. Finally, the bill provides that advanced written notice of a formulary change must be provided no fewer than 90 days before the expected date of the removal or reassignment of a prescription drug on the formulary. Pharmacy networks Under the bill, if an enrollee utilizes a pharmacy or pharmacist in a preferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists, no disability insurance policy or self- insured health plan that provides a prescription drug benefit or pharmacy benefit manager that provides services under a contract with a policy or plan may require the enrollee to pay any amount or impose on the enrollee any condition that would not be required if the enrollee utilized a different pharmacy or pharmacist in the same preferred network. Further, the bill provides that any disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan that provides a prescription drug benefit, or any pharmacy benefit manager that provides services under a contract with a policy or plan, that has established a preferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists must reimburse each pharmacy or pharmacist in the same network at the same rates. Audits of pharmacists and pharmacies This bill makes several changes to audits of pharmacists and pharmacies. The bill requires an entity that conducts audits of pharmacists and pharmacies to ensure that each pharmacist or pharmacy audited by the entity is audited under the same standards and parameters as other similarly situated pharmacists or pharmacies audited by the entity, that the entity randomizes the prescriptions that the entity audits and the entity audits the same number of prescriptions in each prescription benefit tier, and that each audit of a prescription reimbursed under Part D of the federal Medicare program is conducted separately from audits of prescriptions reimbursed under other policies or plans. The bill prohibits any pharmacy benefit manager from recouping reimbursements made to a pharmacist or pharmacy for errors that involve no actual financial harm to an enrollee or a policy or plan sponsor unless the error is the result of the pharmacist or pharmacy failing to comply with a formal corrective action plan. The bill further prohibits any pharmacy benefit manager from using extrapolation in calculating reimbursements that it may recoup, and instead requires a pharmacy benefit manager to base the finding of errors for which reimbursements will be recouped on an actual error in reimbursement and not a projection of the number of patients served having a similar diagnosis or on a projection of the number of similar orders or refills for similar prescription drugs. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager that recoups any reimbursements made to a pharmacist or pharmacy for an error that was the cause of financial harm must return the recouped reimbursement to the enrollee or the policy or plan sponsor who was harmed by the error. Pharmacy benefit manager fiduciary and disclosure requirements The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager owes a fiduciary duty to a health benefit plan sponsor. The bill also requires that a pharmacy benefit manager annually disclose all of the following information to the health benefit plan sponsor: 1. The indirect profit received by the pharmacy benefit manager from owning a pharmacy or health service provider. 2. Any payments made to a consultant or broker who works on behalf of the plan sponsor. 3. From the amounts received from drug manufacturers, the amounts retained by the pharmacy benefit manager that are related to the plan sponsor[s claims or bona fide service fees. 4. The amounts received from network pharmacies and pharmacists and the amount retained by the pharmacy benefit manager. Discriminatory reimbursement of 340B entities The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from taking certain actions with respect to 340B covered entities, pharmacies and pharmacists contracted with 340B covered entities, and patients who obtain prescription drugs from 340B covered entities. The 340B drug pricing program is a federal program that requires pharmaceutical manufacturers that participate in the federal Medicaid program to sell outpatient drugs at discounted prices to certain health care organizations that provide health care for uninsured and low-income patients. Entities that are eligible for discounted prices under the 340B drug pricing program include federally qualified health centers, critical access hospitals, and certain public and nonprofit disproportionate share hospitals. The bill prohibits pharmacy benefit managers from doing any of the following: 1. Refusing to reimburse a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity for dispensing 340B drugs. 2. Imposing requirements or restrictions on 340B covered entities or pharmacies or pharmacists contracted with 340B covered entities that are not imposed on other entities, pharmacies, or pharmacists. 3. Reimbursing a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity for a 340B drug at a rate lower than the amount paid for the same drug to pharmacies or pharmacists that are not 340B covered entities or pharmacies or pharmacists contracted with a 340B covered entity. 4. Assessing a fee, charge back, or other adjustment against a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity after a claim has been paid or adjudicated. 5. Restricting the access of a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity to a third-party payer[s pharmacy network solely because the 340B covered entity or the pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity participates in the 340B drug pricing program. 6. Requiring a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity to contract with a specific pharmacy or pharmacist or health benefit plan in order to access a third-party payer[s pharmacy network. 7. Imposing a restriction or an additional charge on a patient who obtains a 340B drug from a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity. 8. Restricting the methods by which a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity may dispense or deliver 340B drugs. 9. Requiring a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity to share pharmacy bills or invoices with a pharmacy benefit manager, a third-party payer, or a health benefit plan. Application of prescription drug payments Health insurance policies and plans often apply cost-sharing requirements and out-of-pocket maximum amounts to the benefits covered by the policy or plan. A cost-sharing requirement is a share of covered benefits that an insured is required to pay under a health insurance policy or plan. Cost-sharing requirements include copayments, deductibles, and coinsurance. An out-of-pocket maximum amount is a limit specified by a policy or plan on the amount that an insured pays, and, once that limit is reached, the policy or plan covers the benefit entirely. The bill generally requires health insurance policies that offer prescription drug benefits, self-insured health plans, and pharmacy benefit managers acting on behalf of policies or plans to apply amounts paid by or on behalf of an individual covered under the policy or plan for brand name prescription drugs to any cost- sharing requirement or to any calculation of an out-of-pocket maximum amount of the policy or plan. Health insurance policies are referred to in the bill as disability insurance policies. Prohibited retaliation The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from retaliating against a pharmacy or pharmacist for reporting an alleged violation of certain laws applicable to pharmacy benefit managers or for exercising certain rights or remedies. Retaliation includes terminating or refusing to renew a contract with a pharmacy or pharmacist, subjecting a pharmacy or pharmacist to increased audits, or failing to promptly pay a pharmacy or pharmacist any money that the pharmacy benefit manager owes to the pharmacy or pharmacist. The bill provides that a pharmacy or pharmacist may bring an action in court for injunctive relief if a pharmacy benefit manager is retaliating against the pharmacy or pharmacist as provided in the bill. In addition to equitable relief, the court may award a pharmacy or pharmacist that prevails in such an action reasonable attorney fees and costs. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB222 Extortion, sexual extortion, and providing a penalty. This bill creates a new crime for activity known as Xsextortion.Y Under the bill, it is a generally a Class I felony for a person to do any of the following: 1. Threaten to injure the property or reputation of another to coerce that person to engage in sexual conduct or to produce an intimate representation. 2. Threaten to commit violence against another to coerce that person to engage in sexual conduct or to produce an intimate representation. 3. Threaten to distribute an intimate representation of another person with LRB-2773/1 MJW:skw&emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 222 intent to coerce that person to engage in sexual conduct, produce an intimate representation, or to provide payment of money, property, services, or anything of value, or to do or refrain from doing any act against that person[s will. Under the bill, such a violation is a Class H felony if the victim, as a result of the violation, engages in sexual conduct, produces an intimate representation, provides the payment of money, property, services, or any other thing of value, or suffers great bodily harm or if the victim is under age 18 and the defendant is not more than four years older than the victim, and such a violation is a Class G felony if the defendant was previously convicted of a sexually violent offense, the violation was committed during the course of a child abduction, or the victim is under age 18 and the defendant is more than four years older than the victim. Additionally, the bill provides that a person may be prosecuted for felony murder if the person commits extortion or sexual extortion and as a result of the violation causes the death of the victim. Under current law, extortion generally is punishable as a Class I felony, and the penalty for felony murder is imprisonment for up to 15 years longer than the maximum term of imprisonment for the crime that caused the victim[s death. Under current law, a Class I felony is punishable by a fine of up to $10,000 or imprisonment for up to three years and six months, or both; a Class H felony is punishable by a fine of up to $10,000 or imprisonment for up to six years, or both; and a Class G felony is punishable by a fine of up to $25,000 or imprisonment for up to 10 years, or both. This bill also provides that a crime victim, or the victim[s family member, is eligible for payment from the Department of Justice[s crime victim compensation fund if the crime victim is a victim of extortion or sexual extortion and is injured or dies as a result of the crime and provides that a crime victim, or the victim[s family member, may be compensated for death or injury that results from suicide or attempted suicide if the crime was a substantial causal factor in the victim[s suicide or attempted suicide. Because this bill creates a new crime or revises a penalty for an existing crime, the Joint Review Committee on Criminal Penalties may be requested to prepare a report. In Committee
SB256 Delivery network couriers and transportation network drivers, Department of Financial Institutions’ approval to offer portable benefit accounts, providing for insurance coverage, modifying administrative rules related to accident and sickness insurance, and granting rule-making authority. (FE) DELIVERY AND TRANSPORTATION NETWORK COMPANIES General This bill provides that under specific circumstances, delivery network couriers and drivers for transportation network companies (application-based drivers) are LRB-0875/1 MIM/KMS/ARG/KP:cc/cs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 256 not employees of the delivery network companies and transportation network companies (network companies) for the purposes of worker[s compensation insurance, minimum wage laws, and unemployment insurance. In the bill, Xapplication-based driverY is defined as a delivery network courier or participating driver who provides services through the online-enabled application, software, website, or system of a network company. Under the bill, if a network company does not engage in all of the following practices, an application-based driver is not an employee or agent of the company: 1) prescribe specific dates, times of day, or a minimum number of hours during which the driver must be logged into the network company[s online-enabled application, software, or system; 2) terminate the contract of the driver for not accepting a specific request for transportation or delivery service request; 3) restrict the driver from performing services through other network companies except while performing services through that network company; and 4) restrict the driver from working in any other lawful occupation or business. The bill provides that if this provision is held invalid by a court, the provisions regarding portable benefits accounts and group or blanket accident and sickness insurance coverage for application based drivers are invalid. Portable benefit accounts Under the bill, if certain conditions are satisfied, a financial services provider or other person may obtain approval from the Department of Financial Institutions to offer portable benefit accounts. A Xportable benefit accountY is an account administered by such an approved financial services provider or other person (portable benefit account provider) from which an individual may receive distributions for the purposes described below. Under the bill, a network company may offer portable benefit accounts. If an application-based driver meets certain eligibility requirements (eligible driver), a network company may contribute an amount equal to 4 percent of that driver[s quarterly earnings to a portable benefit account, and the driver may also contribute to the portable benefit account. Contributions to a portable benefit account by the account owner may be subtracted from the owner[s income for state income tax purposes. Under the bill, an eligible driver may receive a distribution from a portable benefit account for the following purposes: income due to an illness or accident or loss of work due to the birth or adoption of the driver[s child; 2) to transfer the money to an individual retirement account (IRA); 3) to pay vision, dental, or health insurance premiums; and 4) to compensate for lost income through no fault of the driver from work for a network company. A network company must ensure that the portable benefit account provider it selects offers at least three options for IRA providers and an eligible driver may not transfer money from a portable benefit account to an IRA in an amount exceeding the contribution limits under federal law. A portable benefit account provider may include an income replacement benefit to be made available to eligible drivers. A LRB-0875/1 MIM/KMS/ARG/KP:cc/cs 1) to compensate for lost 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 256 financial services provider may not commingle assets in a portable benefit account with other property, except in a common trust fund or common investment fund. Insurance coverage The bill provides that a network company may carry, provide, or otherwise make available group or blanket accident and sickness insurance for its application- based drivers. The bill requires a network company to make available, upon reasonable request, a copy of its group or blanket accident and sickness insurance policy. The bill specifies that the state[s worker[s compensation laws do not apply to such a policy. The bill also provides that a network company may carry, provide, or otherwise make available group or blanket occupational accident insurance to cover the medical expenses and lost income resulting from an injury suffered by an application-based driver while engaged on the network company[s online-enabled application, software, or system. The bill requires a network company to make available, upon reasonable request, a copy of its blanket occupational accident insurance policy. The bill requires that the policy provide, in aggregate, at least $1,000,000 of coverage for the medical expenses, short-term disability, long-term disability, and survivor benefits. The coverage must include at least $250,000 for medical expenses; weekly disability payments equal to two-thirds of an application- based driver[s average weekly income, subject to certain restrictions, for up to 104 weeks following an injury; and survivor benefits in an amount equal to an application-based driver[s average weekly income, subject to certain restrictions, multiplied by 104. The bill provides that if a claim is covered by occupational accident insurance maintained by more than one network company, the insurer of the network company against whom a claim is filed is entitled to a contribution for the pro rata share of coverage attributable to one or more other network companies. Under the bill, any benefit provided to an application-based driver under an occupational accident insurance policy is treated as amounts payable under a worker[s compensation law or disability benefit for the purpose of determining amounts payable under uninsured or underinsured motorist coverage. Because this bill relates to an exemption from state or local taxes, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Tax Exemptions for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SJR55 Recognizing the United States Army’s 250th birthday. Relating to: recognizing the United States Army[s 250th birthday. In Committee
AB275 Challenges to the validity of administrative rules and making an appropriation. (FE) Under current law, the validity of an administrative rule may be challenged in an action for declaratory judgment or in certain other judicial proceedings when material therein. This bill requires a court, if the court declares a rule invalid, to award the party asserting the invalidity of the rule reasonable attorney fees and costs. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB315 The Warren Knowles-Gaylord Nelson stewardship 2000 program and a major land acquisitions program. (FE) This bill reauthorizes the Warren Knowles-Gaylord Nelson Stewardship 2000 Program until 2030, makes changes to the land acquisition and property development and local assistance subprograms, and creates a separate major land acquisitions program. Reauthorization and changes to the stewardship program Current law authorizes the state to incur public debt for certain conservation activities under the stewardship program, which is administered by the Department of Natural Resources. The state may incur this debt to acquire land for the state for conservation purposes and for property development activities and may award grants or state aid to certain local governmental units and nonprofit conservation organizations (NCOs) to acquire and develop land for these purposes. Current law establishes the amounts that DNR may obligate in each fiscal year through fiscal year 2025-26 for expenditure under each of five subprograms of the stewardship program. The bill reauthorizes the stewardship program until fiscal year 2029-30. Under the stewardship subprogram for land acquisition, the bill continues to require that $1,000,000 be set aside to be obligated only for DNR land acquisition in each fiscal year. This equals the amount that current law requires to be set aside to be obligated only for DNR to acquire land for the Ice Age Trail. The bill reduces from $7,000,000 to $2,000,000 the amount to be set aside to be obligated for grants to NCOs to acquire and develop property for certain conservation purposes. Under current law, in the stewardship program the term XobligateY means to encumber or otherwise commit or to expend without having previously encumbered or otherwise committed, and is used with respect to limits on obligating or requirements to obligate certain amounts in the stewardship program. The bill specifies that XobligateY only refers to encumbering, otherwise committing, or expending public debt that the state is authorized to contract. In other words, XobligateY does not refer to amounts that are not the result of bonding. Under current law, DNR may obligate moneys for local assistance under the subprogram for property development and local assistance only for grant programs for urban green space, local parks, acquisition of property development rights, and urban rivers. Current law requires that such a grant may only be for up to 50 percent of the acquisition costs or development costs of a project. Under the bill, for such grants awarded to a governmental unit, no more than 30 percent of the remaining costs may be paid with funding provided from grants or in-kind contributions. Under current law, these grant programs define Xgovernmental unitY to include a city, village, town, county, or the Kickapoo reserve management board and, for urban green space grants, to also include a lake sanitary district or public inland lake protection and rehabilitation district. The bill also provides that if a governmental unit applies for such a grant after closing on the acquisition of the land in question, the grant may only be for up to 40 percent of the acquisition costs. The bill requires DNR to prioritize projects under any subprogram that involves property development over those that involve land acquisition. The bill eliminates a current law restriction providing that, of the amount set aside for DNR land acquisition and county forest grants under the stewardship program in a given fiscal year, not more than one-third may be obligated for the purpose of DNR land acquisition. The bill also eliminates a current law restriction providing that, of all of the available stewardship program bonding authority in a fiscal year, not more than 20 percent may be obligated for the acquisition of parcels of lands that are less than 10 acres in size. The bill adds a restriction that DNR may not obligate stewardship moneys for a land acquisition project that exceeds $1,000,000. For such projects, the bill creates a new, separate major land acquisitions program. Under the bill, in addition to obligating stewardship moneys to provide grants to NCOs for the acquisition of land for certain conservation purposes, DNR may obligate moneys to provide grants to NCOs to develop, manage, preserve, restore, and maintain wildlife habitat on public lands to benefit game species and other wildlife. The bill requires DNR to prioritize wildlife habitat grants over land acquisition grants under the NCO grant program. Under current law, if in a given fiscal year the amount DNR obligates to provide land acquisition grants to NCOs is less than the amount set aside for that purpose in that fiscal year, DNR may obligate the unobligated amount in the next fiscal year but only for the purpose of awarding a grant to a county for the acquisition of land for a county forest. Under this bill, such unobligated amounts may only be obligated for local assistance grants. Under current law, if DNR does not obligate an amount authorized to be obligated for a subprogram in a fiscal year, DNR may not adjust the annual bonding authority for that subprogram by raising the annual bonding authority for the next fiscal year. Under current law, portions of the unobligated amounts for the land acquisition, property development and local assistance, and recreational boating aids subprograms from various fiscal years from 2011-12 to 2025-26 are obligated for specific purposes. One such provision under current law requires DNR to obligate all unobligated amounts from those subprograms from any fiscal year, including for drilling new wells, facility maintenance, upgrades, and renovations, and construction of new buildings. The bill limits this obligation to only those unobligated amounts for those subprograms from the fiscal years 2021-22 and 2022-23, and specifies that $2,500,000 of that unobligated amount must be obligated for projects at the Les Voigt State Fish Hatchery and the Brule State Fish Hatchery, including drilling new wells, facility maintenance, upgrades and renovations, and construction of new buildings. Major land acquisitions program The bill creates a new major land acquisitions program, under which the bill authorizes DNR to use or obligate moneys to acquire land for the state for conservation purposes or to award grants to NCOs or local governments to acquire land for those purposes if two conditions are met: 1) the project or grant exceeds $1,000,000; and 2) the project or grant is enumerated through legislation. To request enumeration of such projects, the bill requires DNR annually to, no later than January 15, submit to the joint committee on finance and to the appropriate legislative standing committees a list of all proposed major land acquisitions for the subsequent fiscal biennium, including estimated purchase prices, requested state funding sources, and nonstate sources of funding, such as federal grants or donations. The bill authorizes DNR to submit a list of proposed major land acquisitions not listed under the prior proposed list at any time during a fiscal biennium. Under the bill, the legislature may enumerate projects from either list through legislation. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB316 The Warren Knowles-Gaylord Nelson stewardship 2000 program and a major land acquisitions program. (FE) This bill reauthorizes the Warren Knowles-Gaylord Nelson Stewardship 2000 Program until 2030, makes changes to the land acquisition and property LRB-3557/1 EHS:skw&emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 316 development and local assistance subprograms, and creates a separate major land acquisitions program. Reauthorization and changes to the stewardship program Current law authorizes the state to incur public debt for certain conservation activities under the stewardship program, which is administered by the Department of Natural Resources. The state may incur this debt to acquire land for the state for conservation purposes and for property development activities and may award grants or state aid to certain local governmental units and nonprofit conservation organizations (NCOs) to acquire and develop land for these purposes. Current law establishes the amounts that DNR may obligate in each fiscal year through fiscal year 2025-26 for expenditure under each of five subprograms of the stewardship program. The bill reauthorizes the stewardship program until fiscal year 2029-30. Under the stewardship subprogram for land acquisition, the bill continues to require that $1,000,000 be set aside to be obligated only for DNR land acquisition in each fiscal year. This equals the amount that current law requires to be set aside to be obligated only for DNR to acquire land for the Ice Age Trail. The bill reduces from $7,000,000 to $2,000,000 the amount to be set aside to be obligated for grants to NCOs to acquire and develop property for certain conservation purposes. Under current law, in the stewardship program the term XobligateY means to encumber or otherwise commit or to expend without having previously encumbered or otherwise committed, and is used with respect to limits on obligating or requirements to obligate certain amounts in the stewardship program. The bill specifies that XobligateY only refers to encumbering, otherwise committing, or expending public debt that the state is authorized to contract. In other words, XobligateY does not refer to amounts that are not the result of bonding. Under current law, DNR may obligate moneys for local assistance under the subprogram for property development and local assistance only for grant programs for urban green space, local parks, acquisition of property development rights, and urban rivers. Current law requires that such a grant may only be for up to 50 percent of the acquisition costs or development costs of a project. Under the bill, for such grants awarded to a governmental unit, no more than 30 percent of the remaining costs may be paid with funding provided from grants or in-kind contributions. Under current law, these grant programs define Xgovernmental unitY to include a city, village, town, county, or the Kickapoo reserve management board and, for urban green space grants, to also include a lake sanitary district or public inland lake protection and rehabilitation district. The bill also provides that if a governmental unit applies for such a grant after closing on the acquisition of the land in question, the grant may only be for up to 40 percent of the acquisition costs. The bill requires DNR to prioritize projects under any subprogram that involves property development over those that involve land acquisition. The bill eliminates a current law restriction providing that, of the amount set aside for DNR land acquisition and county forest grants under the stewardship program in a given fiscal year, not more than one-third may be obligated for the purpose of DNR land acquisition. The bill also eliminates a current law restriction LRB-3557/1 EHS:skw&emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 316 providing that, of all of the available stewardship program bonding authority in a fiscal year, not more than 20 percent may be obligated for the acquisition of parcels of lands that are less than 10 acres in size. The bill adds a restriction that DNR may not obligate stewardship moneys for a land acquisition project that exceeds $1,000,000. For such projects, the bill creates a new, separate major land acquisitions program. Under the bill, in addition to obligating stewardship moneys to provide grants to NCOs for the acquisition of land for certain conservation purposes, DNR may obligate moneys to provide grants to NCOs to develop, manage, preserve, restore, and maintain wildlife habitat on public lands to benefit game species and other wildlife. The bill requires DNR to prioritize wildlife habitat grants over land acquisition grants under the NCO grant program. Under current law, if in a given fiscal year the amount DNR obligates to provide land acquisition grants to NCOs is less than the amount set aside for that purpose in that fiscal year, DNR may obligate the unobligated amount in the next fiscal year but only for the purpose of awarding a grant to a county for the acquisition of land for a county forest. Under this bill, such unobligated amounts may only be obligated for local assistance grants. Under current law, if DNR does not obligate an amount authorized to be obligated for a subprogram in a fiscal year, DNR may not adjust the annual bonding authority for that subprogram by raising the annual bonding authority for the next fiscal year. Under current law, portions of the unobligated amounts for the land acquisition, property development and local assistance, and recreational boating aids subprograms from various fiscal years from 2011-12 to 2025-26 are obligated for specific purposes. One such provision under current law requires DNR to obligate all unobligated amounts from those subprograms from any fiscal year, including for drilling new wells, facility maintenance, upgrades, and renovations, and construction of new buildings. The bill limits this obligation to only those unobligated amounts for those subprograms from the fiscal years 2021-22 and 2022-23, and specifies that $2,500,000 of that unobligated amount must be obligated for projects at the Les Voigt State Fish Hatchery and the Brule State Fish Hatchery, including drilling new wells, facility maintenance, upgrades and renovations, and construction of new buildings. Major land acquisitions program The bill creates a new major land acquisitions program, under which the bill authorizes DNR to use or obligate moneys to acquire land for the state for conservation purposes or to award grants to NCOs or local governments to acquire land for those purposes if two conditions are met: 1) the project or grant exceeds $1,000,000; and 2) the project or grant is enumerated through legislation. To request enumeration of such projects, the bill requires DNR annually to, no later than January 15, submit to the joint committee on finance and to the appropriate legislative standing committees a list of all proposed major land acquisitions for the subsequent fiscal biennium, including estimated purchase prices, requested state funding sources, and nonstate sources of funding, such as federal grants or donations. The bill authorizes DNR to submit a list of proposed major land LRB-3557/1 EHS:skw&emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 316 acquisitions not listed under the prior proposed list at any time during a fiscal biennium. Under the bill, the legislature may enumerate projects from either list through legislation. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SJR63 Proclaiming June as Dairy Month in Wisconsin. Relating to: proclaiming June as Dairy Month in Wisconsin. In Committee
SB291 Making certain child care expenditures eligible for the business development tax credit. (FE) Under current law, a business may receive a refundable business development tax credit for an amount equal to up to 15 percent of the business[s investment in establishing an employee child care program for employees. Such investments may include only capital expenditures made by the person. Because the credit is refundable, if the credit exceeds the claimant[s tax liability, the claimant will receive the difference as a refund check. Under this bill, a business may receive a credit for an amount of up to 15 percent of the business[s costs incurred to provide child care services for employees. XCosts incurred to provide child care services for employeesY includes capital expenditures made to establish a child care program for employees, expenditures for the operation of a child care program for employees, expenditures to reimburse employees for child care expenses, expenditures to purchase or reserve child care slots on behalf of employees, contributions made by an employer to an employee[s LRB-2366/1 MDE&KP:skw&cjs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 291 dependent care flexible spending account, and any other cost or expense incurred due to a benefit provided by an employer to facilitate the provision or utilization by employees of child care services. The bill also provides that the Wisconsin Economic Development Corporation may certify a nonprofit entity described under section 501 (c) (3) of the Internal Revenue Code for the business development tax credit for expenditures on providing child care services to employees. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB297 Performance grants based on improving employment rates for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision. (FE) This bill requires the Department of Corrections to award performance grants to adult probation and parole offices based on increases in employment rates for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision in the regions the offices serve. The bill provides a formula to determine the amount of funds each adult probation and parole office is eligible to receive under this performance grant program. Under the formula, DOC must calculate a baseline employment rate for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who reside in the region the office serves by averaging the annual employment rate for those individuals in fiscal years 2021-22, 2022-23, and 2023-24. Then, on July 1 of each fiscal year, DOC must calculate the employment rate for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who reside in the region the office serves for the fiscal year that just ended. DOC must subtract the baseline employment rate from the employment rate for the fiscal year that just ended. If the difference is negative, the office is not eligible for a performance grant in the fiscal year that just began. If the difference is positive, the office is eligible for a performance grant in the fiscal year that just began that is equal to that difference multiplied by the number of individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who reside in the region the office serves, multiplied again by $2,500. Under the bill, an office that receives a grant must use the funds to provide bonuses for employees of the regional office. The bill requires DOC to develop and publish outcome-based measures for each region such as the employment rate and the average length of employment for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision; the percentage and employment status of individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who are convicted of a crime while on the supervised status; the number and employment status of individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who complete their period of supervised status; the programs for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision that were created or eliminated; and an estimate of savings to the state as a result of reduced correctional costs due to lower crime rates among individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision. The bill requires DOC to work with the offices to prepare annual reports for the legislature. The reports must be available to the public and must include information about the effectiveness of the performance grants based on outcome- based measures and recommendations regarding resource allocations or collaboration with other state, regional, or local entities or other regions for improvements to the performance grant program. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB283 Making certain child care expenditures eligible for the business development tax credit. (FE) Under current law, a business may receive a refundable business development tax credit for an amount equal to up to 15 percent of the business[s investment in establishing an employee child care program for employees. Such investments may include only capital expenditures made by the person. Because the credit is refundable, if the credit exceeds the claimant[s tax liability, the claimant will receive the difference as a refund check. Under this bill, a business may receive a credit for an amount of up to 15 percent of the business[s costs incurred to provide child care services for employees. XCosts incurred to provide child care services for employeesY includes capital expenditures made to establish a child care program for employees, expenditures for the operation of a child care program for employees, expenditures to reimburse employees for child care expenses, expenditures to purchase or reserve child care slots on behalf of employees, contributions made by an employer to an employee[s dependent care flexible spending account, and any other cost or expense incurred due to a benefit provided by an employer to facilitate the provision or utilization by employees of child care services. The bill also provides that the Wisconsin Economic Development Corporation may certify a nonprofit entity described under section 501 (c) (3) of the Internal Revenue Code for the business development tax credit for expenditures on providing child care services to employees. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB211 Exempting tobacco bars from the public smoking ban. This bill exempts tobacco bars from the general prohibition under current law against smoking in indoor locations if the tobacco bar satisfies all of the following: 1) the tobacco bar came into existence on or after June 4, 2009; 2) only the smoking of cigars and pipes is allowed in the tobacco bar; and 3) the tobacco bar is not a retail food establishment. Current law defines a Xtobacco barY as a tavern that generates 15 percent or more of its annual gross income from the sale on the tavern premises, other than from a vending machine, of cigars and pipe tobacco. Also, under current law, tobacco bars that existed on June 3, 2009, are exempt from the general prohibition against smoking in indoor locations. In Committee
SB12 A sales and use tax exemption for the sale of gun safes. (FE) This bill creates a sales and use tax exemption for sales of gun safes. Because this bill relates to an exemption from state or local taxes, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Tax Exemptions for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AJR63 Proclaiming January 1, 2025, to December 31, 2025, as Wisconsin State Park System 125th Anniversary. Relating to: proclaiming January 1, 2025, to December 31, 2025, as Wisconsin State Park System 125th Anniversary. In Committee
SJR62 Proclaiming January 1, 2025, to December 31, 2025, as Wisconsin State Park System 125th Anniversary. Relating to: proclaiming January 1, 2025, to December 31, 2025, as Wisconsin State Park System 125th Anniversary. In Committee
SB276 Challenges to the validity of administrative rules and making an appropriation. (FE) Under current law, the validity of an administrative rule may be challenged in an action for declaratory judgment or in certain other judicial proceedings when material therein. This bill requires a court, if the court declares a rule invalid, to award the party asserting the invalidity of the rule reasonable attorney fees and costs. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB302 Performance grants based on improving employment rates for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision. (FE) This bill requires the Department of Corrections to award performance grants to adult probation and parole offices based on increases in employment rates for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision in the regions the offices serve. The bill provides a formula to determine the amount of funds each adult probation and parole office is eligible to receive under this performance grant program. Under the formula, DOC must calculate a baseline employment rate for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who reside in the region the office serves by averaging the annual employment rate for those individuals in fiscal years 2021-22, 2022-23, and 2023-24. Then, on July 1 of each fiscal year, DOC must calculate the employment rate for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who reside in the region the office serves for the fiscal year that just ended. DOC must subtract the baseline employment rate from the employment rate for the fiscal year that just ended. If the difference is negative, the office is not eligible for a performance grant in the fiscal year that just began. If the difference is positive, the office is eligible for a performance grant in the fiscal year LRB-2495/1 CMH:skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 302 that just began that is equal to that difference multiplied by the number of individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who reside in the region the office serves, multiplied again by $2,500. Under the bill, an office that receives a grant must use the funds to provide bonuses for employees of the regional office. The bill requires DOC to develop and publish outcome-based measures for each region such as the employment rate and the average length of employment for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision; the percentage and employment status of individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who are convicted of a crime while on the supervised status; the number and employment status of individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision who complete their period of supervised status; the programs for individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision that were created or eliminated; and an estimate of savings to the state as a result of reduced correctional costs due to lower crime rates among individuals on probation, parole, or extended supervision. The bill requires DOC to work with the offices to prepare annual reports for the legislature. The reports must be available to the public and must include information about the effectiveness of the performance grants based on outcome- based measures and recommendations regarding resource allocations or collaboration with other state, regional, or local entities or other regions for improvements to the performance grant program. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB274 The expiration of administrative rules. (FE) This bill provides for the expiration of each chapter of the Wisconsin Administrative Code after seven years, unless the chapter is readopted by the agency through the readoption process established under the bill. Under current law, an agency may promulgate administrative rules when it is granted rule-making authority under the statutes. administrative rules remain in effect indefinitely unless repealed or amended by the agency or suspended by the Joint Committee for Review of Administrative Rules. This bill provides that each chapter of the code expires seven years after a rule that creates, or repeals and recreates, the chapter takes effect or after the chapter is readopted. The bill requires JCRAR to establish a schedule for the expiration of all existing code chapters that are in effect on the effective date of the bill. Under the bill, in the year before a code chapter is set to expire, an agency may send to JCRAR and the appropriate standing committees a notice of its intention to readopt the chapter. If no member of JCRAR or the standing committees objects to the readoption notice, the chapter is considered readopted without further action. If any member of JCRAR or either standing committee objects to readoption of the chapter, the chapter expires on its expiration date unless the agency promulgates a rule to readopt the chapter using the standard rule-making process. Under the bill, JCRAR may extend the effective date of the chapter that is set to expire for up to one year to accommodate readoption of the chapter through the standard rule- making process. The bill also requires agencies to avoid in rules the use of words and phrases that are outdated or that are now understood to be derogatory or offensive. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB127 The duty of a pharmacist to dispense lawfully prescribed drugs and devices. (FE) Under current law, a pharmacy has a duty to dispense lawfully prescribed contraceptive drugs and devices without delay unless certain factors apply, including that the prescription contains an obvious or known error or contains inadequate instructions, the prescription is contraindicated for the patient, the prescription is incompatible with another drug or device prescribed for the patient, or the prescription is potentially fraudulent. This bill expands that duty to require pharmacies to dispense any lawfully prescribed drug or device without delay. However, if any pharmacist at a pharmacy refuses to dispense a drug or device for reasons of conscience such that the pharmacy cannot fulfill the prescription order without delay, then the bill requires the pharmacy to transfer the prescription order to a different pharmacy, at the direction of the patient, that will dispense the prescribed drug or device without delay. The bill also specifies that a pharmacy may not dispense a lawfully prescribed drug or device if there is an absolute contraindication for the prescribed drug or device, rather than just a contraindication. Under the bill, Xabsolute contraindicationY is defined to mean any condition present in a patient that makes a particular drug or device inadvisable under any circumstances. Further, the bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from penalizing in any way a pharmacy or pharmacist from dispensing a prescribed drug or device that is prescribed for a use other than a use approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration if the prescribed drug or device is dispensed pursuant to a valid prescription order. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB137 The duty of a pharmacist to dispense lawfully prescribed drugs and devices. (FE) Under current law, a pharmacy has a duty to dispense lawfully prescribed contraceptive drugs and devices without delay unless certain factors apply, including that the prescription contains an obvious or known error or contains inadequate instructions, the prescription is contraindicated for the patient, the prescription is incompatible with another drug or device prescribed for the patient, or the prescription is potentially fraudulent. This bill expands that duty to require pharmacies to dispense any lawfully prescribed drug or device without delay. However, if any pharmacist at a pharmacy refuses to dispense a drug or device for reasons of conscience such that the pharmacy cannot fulfill the prescription order without delay, then the bill requires the pharmacy to transfer the prescription order to a different pharmacy, at the direction of the patient, that will dispense the prescribed drug or device without delay. The bill also specifies that a pharmacy LRB-0508/1 JPC:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 137 may not dispense a lawfully prescribed drug or device if there is an absolute contraindication for the prescribed drug or device, rather than just a contraindication. Under the bill, Xabsolute contraindicationY is defined to mean any condition present in a patient that makes a particular drug or device inadvisable under any circumstances. Further, the bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from penalizing in any way a pharmacy or pharmacist from dispensing a prescribed drug or device that is prescribed for a use other than a use approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration if the prescribed drug or device is dispensed pursuant to a valid prescription order. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB32 Access to public high schools for military recruiters. In general, federal law requires local educational agencies, such as school boards and charter schools, that receive federal assistance under the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965 to provide military recruiters the same access to secondary school students that the local educational agencies provide to postsecondary educational institutions or to prospective employers. This bill requires school boards and governing boards of charter schools to, in addition to complying with federal law, specifically allow military recruiters access to common areas in high schools and to allow access during a school day and to school- sanctioned events. Nothing in the bill requires a school board or governing board of a charter school to provide a military recruiter access to a high school classroom during instructional time. In Committee
AB10 A sales and use tax exemption for the sale of gun safes. (FE) This bill creates a sales and use tax exemption for sales of gun safes. Because this bill relates to an exemption from state or local taxes, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Tax Exemptions for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB9 Allowing representatives of certain federally chartered youth membership organizations to provide information to pupils on public school property. This bill requires, upon the request of certain federally chartered youth membership organizations, the principal of a public school, including an independent charter school, to schedule at least one date and time at the beginning of the school term for representatives of the youth membership organization to provide information about the organization to pupils during the school day on school property. Such information may include information about how the organization furthers the educational interests and civic involvement of pupils consistent with good citizenship. Examples of these federally chartered youth membership organizations are Boy Scouts of America and Girl Scouts of the United States of America. In Committee
AB226 Prohibiting school boards and independent charter schools from providing food containing certain ingredients in free or reduced-price meals. This bill prohibits school boards and independent charter schools from providing food that contains brominated vegetable oil, potassium bromate, propylparaben, azodicarbonamide, or red dye 3 to pupils as part of free or reduced- price meals provided under the National School Lunch Program or the federal School Breakfast Program. The bill does not prohibit school boards and independent charter schools from allowing private vendors to serve food containing any of those ingredients on school premises or at school-sponsored activities. In Committee
SB218 The amount and distribution of the real estate transfer fee, grants under the land information program, real property recording notification systems, and making an appropriation. (FE) Current law, generally, requires a person who conveys an interest in real property to file a real estate transfer return with the county register of deeds and pay a real estate transfer fee equal to 30 cents for each $100 of the value of the conveyance. The county retains 20 percent of the fees collected and transmits the remainder to the state. This bill decreases the real estate transfer fee to 20 cents for each $100 of the value of the conveyance. Under the bill, 30 percent of the fees collected are deposited into the general fund, 20 percent of the fees are deposited into the land information fund, and the county retains 50 percent of the fees. Under current law, the Department of Administration administers a land information program, using revenue from the land information fund, that provides funding to counties for the modernization of local land records. Under the land LRB-2260/1 KP/EVM/KRP:klm&wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 218 information program, DOA awards land information system base budget grants to counties to enable county land information offices to develop, maintain, and operate basic land information systems. Currently, the minimum amount of a grant is $100,000 less the amount of certain fees retained by the county in the preceding fiscal year. The bill increases that base amount to $175,000 less the retained fees. Under current law, DOA may award a grant under the land information program to any county in an amount not less than $1,000 per year to be used for the training and education of county employees for the design, development, and implementation of a land information system. The bill increases the minimum training and education grant amount from $1,000 to $5,000. The bill directs DOA to award additional local government contribution based grants to counties to fully distribute 46 percent of the amount of real estate transfer fees that are deposited into the land information fund under the bill in each fiscal year. Under the bill, DOA annually must award 46 percent of those deposited amounts as grants to counties based on the relative proportion of the fees each county collected. This bill also requires any county that retains real estate transfer fee moneys to establish a real property recording notification system to be administered by the county[s register of deeds. Upon application by a person, such a system monitors publicly recorded real property records for activity and changes related to properties owned by a specific person or a specific property, and, upon the recording of a new document against a monitored property, notifies the person who applied for monitoring. The bill specifies that no fee may be charged to an applicant for application, monitoring, or notification under such a system. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB290 Special registration plates to support protecting pollinators and making an appropriation. (FE) Under current law, members of certain designated special groups may obtain from the Department of Transportation special registration plates for certain vehicles that are owned or leased by special group members. A fee, in addition to the regular registration fee for the particular kind of vehicle, is charged for the issuance or reissuance of most special plates. This bill establishes a special group for persons to express support for protecting pollinators. The bill requires that plates issued to members of the special group have a design that covers the entire plate and includes the words XProtect Pollinators.Y The bill provides that, in addition to the required fees, special group members are required to make a voluntary payment of $25 to be issued the special plates. Under the bill, DOT retains $23,700, or the actual initial costs of production, whichever is less, from the voluntary payment moneys for the initial costs of production of the special plates. The remainder of the voluntary payment amounts are deposited in the conservation fund to be used by the Department of Natural Resources for the purposes of the endangered resources program. In addition, the bill appropriates $23,700 from the general fund to DOT for the initial costs of production of the special group plates. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB326 Creating a nutrient loss reduction grant program. (FE) This bill creates a nutrient loss reduction grant program, under which the Department of Agriculture, Trade and Consumer Protection may award grants to farmers for the purpose of purchasing enhanced efficiency fertilizer products, implementing variable rate technology, or preparing a nutrient management plan. Under the bill, an Xenhanced efficiency fertilizer productY is a controlled-release or slow-release fertilizer formulation or a product, added to fertilizer, that includes a urease inhibitor or a nitrification inhibitor. XVariable rate technologyY is defined under the bill as the practice of testing soil in sections of six acres or less using georeferenced data points and applying fertilizer at a prescribed rate for each section depending on the results of the soil samples. A Xnutrient management planY is a plan for using commercial fertilizer, manure, or organic byproducts in a manner that reduces nutrient loss. Under the bill, if a grant will be used for purchasing and using an enhanced efficiency fertilizer product, the grant amount may not exceed the lesser of $7 per acre or 50 percent of the cost of the product. If a grant will be used for implementing variable rate technology, the grant amount may not exceed the lesser of $8 per acre or 50 percent of the cost of soil sampling. If a grant will be used for preparing a nutrient management plan, the grant may not exceed the lesser of $2 per acre or 50 percent of the cost of preparing the plan. In addition, a grant LRB-3204/1 MCP:ads&klm 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 326 recipient may not receive more than $20,000 in any given year under the grant program. The bill allows an applicant to receive a grant that covers multiple allowable activities in a single year. The bill also allows an agricultural retailer (a person that supplies resources, materials, and products to farmers) to submit an application for a grant on behalf of a farmer. Finally, the bill allows DATCP to request certain information and materials from a grant applicant or recipient, including land and field information, receipts and invoices, and an attestation that the applicant is not receiving any other funding or incentives for the activities funded by the grant. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB327 Emotional support animals in housing; falsely claiming that an animal is a service animal; and providing a penalty. (FE) This bill makes changes relating to emotional support animals and service animals in the laws addressing discrimination in housing and public places of accommodation or amusement. Current law defines an emotional support animal as an animal that provides emotional support, well-being, comfort, or companionship to an individual, but that is not trained to perform tasks for an individual with a disability. A service animal is generally defined as a dog or other animal that is individually trained to do work or perform tasks for an individual with a disability. This bill changes the definition of Xservice animalY for purposes of the laws addressing discrimination in public places of accommodation or amusement. The bill limits service animals for those purposes to a dog or miniature horse that meets the standards set forth under federal regulations implementing the Americans with Disabilities Act or a dog or miniature horse that is being trained to be a service animal. LRB-0196/1 MIM:ads&cjs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 327 Under current law, it is discrimination to do any of the following with respect to an individual who has a disability and a disability-related need for an emotional support animal: refuse to rent or sell housing to the individual, charge the individual more for housing, evict the individual from housing, or harass the individual. An owner or lessor, an agent of an owner or lessor, or a representative of a condominium association (collectively, Xhousing representativeY) may request from an individual who wishes to keep an emotional support animal in housing reliable documentation of the individual[s disability-related need for an emotional support animal from a licensed health professional and may deny the individual the ability to keep the emotional support animal in the housing if the individual fails to provide the documentation. The bill allows the housing representative to require that this documentation include a prescription from a licensed health professional for the emotional support animal. An individual who provides false documentation of a prescription for an emotional support animal and a health care provider who provides a prescription for an emotional support animal without having at least a 30-day relationship with the individual before providing the prescription must each forfeit at least $500. The bill prohibits a person from intentionally misrepresenting that he or she is in possession of a service animal while at any public place of accommodation or amusement. A person who violates this prohibition is subject to a forfeiture of up to $200 for a first violation and up to $500 for a second or subsequent violation. The bill requires the Department of Workforce Development to prepare and make available to businesses upon request: 1) signage suitable for posting on a front window or door stating Xtask-trained service animals are welcomeY and that misrepresenting an animal as a service animal is a violation of state law; and 2) an informational brochure detailing the rights of businesses relating to service animals in their place of business. In preparing these materials, DWD must consult with members of organizations that represent business owners, restaurant owners, and groups that train and place service animals and guide dogs. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB297 Special registration plates to support protecting pollinators and making an appropriation. (FE) Under current law, members of certain designated special groups may obtain from the Department of Transportation special registration plates for certain vehicles that are owned or leased by special group members. A fee, in addition to the regular registration fee for the particular kind of vehicle, is charged for the issuance or reissuance of most special plates. This bill establishes a special group for persons to express support for protecting pollinators. The bill requires that plates issued to members of the special group have a design that covers the entire plate and includes the words XProtect Pollinators.Y The bill provides that, in addition to the required fees, special group members are required to make a voluntary payment of $25 to be issued the special plates. Under the bill, DOT retains $23,700, or the actual initial costs of production, whichever is less, from the voluntary payment moneys for the initial costs of production of the special plates. The remainder of the voluntary payment amounts LRB-3157/1 ZDW:amn&cjs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 297 are deposited in the conservation fund to be used by the Department of Natural Resources for the purposes of the endangered resources program. In addition, the bill appropriates $23,700 from the general fund to DOT for the initial costs of production of the special group plates. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB205 Serving maple syrup in a public eating place. Under this bill, a public eating place may not serve a food product identified as maple syrup unless the product is made entirely of maple syrup, as the term is defined in federal regulations. In Committee
AB216 The amount and distribution of the real estate transfer fee, grants under the land information program, real property recording notification systems, and making an appropriation. (FE) Current law, generally, requires a person who conveys an interest in real property to file a real estate transfer return with the county register of deeds and pay a real estate transfer fee equal to 30 cents for each $100 of the value of the conveyance. The county retains 20 percent of the fees collected and transmits the remainder to the state. This bill decreases the real estate transfer fee to 20 cents for each $100 of the value of the conveyance. Under the bill, 30 percent of the fees collected are deposited into the general fund, 20 percent of the fees are deposited into the land information fund, and the county retains 50 percent of the fees. Under current law, the Department of Administration administers a land information program, using revenue from the land information fund, that provides funding to counties for the modernization of local land records. Under the land information program, DOA awards land information system base budget grants to counties to enable county land information offices to develop, maintain, and operate basic land information systems. Currently, the minimum amount of a grant is $100,000 less the amount of certain fees retained by the county in the preceding fiscal year. The bill increases that base amount to $175,000 less the retained fees. Under current law, DOA may award a grant under the land information program to any county in an amount not less than $1,000 per year to be used for the training and education of county employees for the design, development, and implementation of a land information system. The bill increases the minimum training and education grant amount from $1,000 to $5,000. The bill directs DOA to award additional local government contribution based grants to counties to fully distribute 46 percent of the amount of real estate transfer fees that are deposited into the land information fund under the bill in each fiscal year. Under the bill, DOA annually must award 46 percent of those deposited amounts as grants to counties based on the relative proportion of the fees each county collected. This bill also requires any county that retains real estate transfer fee moneys to establish a real property recording notification system to be administered by the county[s register of deeds. Upon application by a person, such a system monitors publicly recorded real property records for activity and changes related to properties owned by a specific person or a specific property, and, upon the recording of a new document against a monitored property, notifies the person who applied for monitoring. The bill specifies that no fee may be charged to an applicant for application, monitoring, or notification under such a system. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB203 Regulation of pharmacy benefit managers, fiduciary and disclosure requirements on pharmacy benefit managers, and application of prescription drug payments to health insurance cost-sharing requirements. (FE) This bill makes several changes to the regulation of pharmacy benefit LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 managers and their interactions with pharmacies and pharmacists. Under current law, pharmacy benefit managers are generally required to be licensed as a pharmacy benefit manager or an employee benefit plan administrator by the commissioner of insurance. A pharmacy benefit manager is an entity that contracts to administer or manage prescription drug benefits on behalf of an insurer, a cooperative, or another entity that provides prescription drug benefits to Wisconsin residents. Major provisions of the bill are summarized below. Pharmacy benefit manager regulation The bill requires a pharmacy benefit manager to pay a pharmacy or pharmacist a professional dispensing fee at a rate not less than is paid by the state under the Medical Assistance program for each pharmaceutical product that the pharmacy or pharmacist dispenses to an individual. The professional dispensing fee is required to be paid in addition to the amount the pharmacy benefit manager reimburses the pharmacy or pharmacist for the cost of the pharmaceutical product that the pharmacy or pharmacist dispenses. The Medical Assistance program is a joint state and federal program that provides health services to individuals who have limited financial resources. The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from assessing, charging, or collecting from a pharmacy or pharmacist any form of remuneration that passes from the pharmacy or pharmacist to the pharmacy benefit manager including claim-processing fees, performance-based fees, network-participation fees, or accreditation fees. Further, under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager may not use any certification or accreditation requirement as a determinant of pharmacy network participation that is inconsistent with, more stringent than, or in addition to the federal requirements for licensure as a pharmacy and the requirements for licensure as a pharmacy provided under state law. The bill requires a pharmacy benefit manager to allow a participant or beneficiary of a pharmacy benefits plan or program that the pharmacy benefit manager serves to use any pharmacy or pharmacist in this state that is licensed to dispense the pharmaceutical product that the participant or beneficiary seeks to obtain if the pharmacy or pharmacist accepts the same terms and conditions that the pharmacy benefit manager establishes for at least one of the networks of pharmacies or pharmacists that the pharmacy benefit manager has established to serve individuals in the state. A pharmacy benefit manager may establish a preferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists and a nonpreferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists; however, under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager may not prohibit a pharmacy or pharmacist from participating in either type of network provided that the pharmacy or pharmacist is licensed by this state and the federal government and accepts the same terms and conditions that the pharmacy benefit manager establishes for other pharmacies or pharmacists participating in the network that the pharmacy or pharmacist wants to join. Under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager may not charge a participant or beneficiary of a LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 pharmacy benefits plan or program that the pharmacy benefit manager serves a different copayment obligation or additional fee, or provide any inducement or financial incentive, for the participant or beneficiary to use a pharmacy or pharmacist in a particular network of pharmacies or pharmacists that the pharmacy benefit manager has established to serve individuals in the state. Further, the bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager, third-party payer, or health benefit plan from excluding a pharmacy or pharmacist from its network because the pharmacy or pharmacist serves less than a certain portion of the population of the state or serves a population living with certain health conditions. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager may neither prohibit a pharmacy or pharmacist that dispenses a pharmaceutical product from, nor penalize a pharmacy or pharmacist that dispenses a pharmaceutical product for, informing an individual about the cost of the pharmaceutical product, the amount in reimbursement that the pharmacy or pharmacist receives for dispensing the pharmaceutical product, or any difference between the cost to the individual under the individual[s pharmacy benefits plan or program and the cost to the individual if the individual purchases the pharmaceutical product without making a claim for benefits under the individual[s pharmacy benefits plan or program. The bill prohibits any pharmacy benefit manager or any insurer or self- insured health plan from requiring, or penalizing a person who is covered under a health insurance policy or plan for using or for not using, a specific retail, mail- order, or other pharmacy provider within the network of pharmacy providers under the policy or plan. Prohibited penalties include an increase in premium, deductible, copayment, or coinsurance. The bill requires pharmacy benefit managers to remit payment for a claim to a pharmacy or pharmacist within 30 days from the day that the claim is submitted to the pharmacy benefit manager by the pharmacy or pharmacist. Pharmaceutical product reimbursements The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager that uses a maximum allowable cost list must include all of the following information on the list: 1) the average acquisition cost of each pharmaceutical product and the cost of the pharmaceutical product set forth in the national average drug acquisition cost data published by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services; 2) the average manufacturer price of each pharmaceutical product; 3) the average wholesale price of each pharmaceutical product; 4) the brand effective rate or generic effective rate for each pharmaceutical product; 5) any applicable discount indexing; 6) the federal upper limit for each pharmaceutical product published by the federal centers for medicare and medicaid services; pharmaceutical product; and 8) any other terms that are used to establish the maximum allowable costs. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager may place or continue a particular pharmaceutical product on a maximum allowable cost list only if the pharmaceutical product 1) is listed as a drug product equivalent or is rated by a LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 7) the wholesale acquisition cost of each 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 nationally recognized reference as Xnot ratedY or Xnot availableY; 2) is available for purchase by all pharmacies and pharmacists in the state from national or regional pharmaceutical wholesalers operating in the state; and 3) has not been determined by the drug manufacturer to be obsolete. Further, the bill provides that any pharmacy benefit manager that uses a maximum allowable cost list must provide access to the maximum allowable cost list to each pharmacy or pharmacist subject to the maximum allowable cost list, update the maximum allowable cost list on a timely basis, provide a process for a pharmacy or pharmacist subject to the maximum allowable cost list to receive notification of an update to the maximum allowable cost list, and update the maximum allowable cost list no later than seven days after the pharmacy acquisition cost of the pharmaceutical product increases by 10 percent or more from at least 60 percent of the pharmaceutical wholesalers doing business in the state or there is a change in the methodology on which the maximum allowable cost list is based or in the value of a variable involved in the methodology. A maximum allowable cost list is a list of pharmaceutical products that sets forth the maximum amount that a pharmacy benefit manager will pay to a pharmacy or pharmacist for dispensing a pharmaceutical product. A maximum allowable cost list may directly establish maximum costs or may set forth a method for how the maximum costs are calculated. The bill further provides that a pharmacy benefit manager that uses a maximum allowable cost list must provide a process for a pharmacy or pharmacist to appeal and resolve disputes regarding claims that the maximum payment amount for a pharmaceutical product is below the pharmacy acquisition cost. A pharmacy benefit manager that receives an appeal from or on behalf of a pharmacy or pharmacist under this bill is required to resolve the appeal and notify the pharmacy or pharmacist of the pharmacy benefit manager[s determination no later than seven business days after the appeal is received. If the pharmacy benefit manager grants the relief requested in the appeal, the bill requires the pharmacy benefit manager to make the requested change in the maximum allowable cost, allow the pharmacy or pharmacist to reverse and rebill the relevant claim, provide to the pharmacy or pharmacist the national drug code number published in a directory by the federal Food and Drug Administration on which the increase or change is based, and make the change effective for each similarly situated pharmacy or pharmacist subject to the maximum allowable cost list. If the pharmacy benefit manager denies the relief requested in the appeal, the bill requires the pharmacy benefit manager to provide the pharmacy or pharmacist a reason for the denial, the national drug code number published in a directory by the FDA for the pharmaceutical product to which the claim relates, and the name of a national or regional wholesaler that has the pharmaceutical product currently in stock at a price below the amount specified in the pharmacy benefit manager[s maximum allowable cost list. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager may not deny a pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s appeal if the relief requested in the appeal relates to LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 the maximum allowable cost for a pharmaceutical product that is not available for the pharmacy or pharmacist to purchase at a cost that is below the pharmacy acquisition cost from the pharmaceutical wholesaler from which the pharmacy or pharmacist purchases the majority of pharmaceutical products for resale. If a pharmaceutical product is not available for a pharmacy or pharmacist to purchase at a cost that is below the pharmacy acquisition cost from the pharmaceutical wholesaler from which the pharmacy or pharmacist purchases the majority of pharmaceutical products for resale, the pharmacy benefit manager must revise the maximum allowable cost list to increase the maximum allowable cost for the pharmaceutical product to an amount equal to or greater than the pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s pharmacy acquisition cost and allow the pharmacy or pharmacist to reverse and rebill each claim affected by the pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s inability to procure the pharmaceutical product at a cost that is equal to or less than the maximum allowable cost that was the subject of the pharmacy[s or pharmacist[s appeal. The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from reimbursing a pharmacy or pharmacist in the state an amount less than the amount that the pharmacy benefit manager reimburses a pharmacy benefit manager affiliate for providing the same pharmaceutical product. Under the bill, a pharmacy benefit manager affiliate is a pharmacy or pharmacist that is an affiliate of a pharmacy benefit manager. Finally, the bill allows a pharmacy or pharmacist to decline to provide a pharmaceutical product to an individual or pharmacy benefit manager if, as a result of a maximum allowable cost list, the pharmacy or pharmacist would be paid less than the pharmacy acquisition cost of the pharmacy or pharmacist providing the pharmaceutical product. Drug formularies This bill makes several changes with respect to drug formularies. Under current law, a disability insurance policy that offers a prescription drug benefit, a self-insured health plan that offers a prescription drug benefit, or a pharmacy benefit manager acting on behalf of a disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan must provide to an enrollee advanced written notice of a formulary change that removes a prescription drug from the formulary of the policy or plan or that reassigns a prescription drug to a benefit tier for the policy or plan that has a higher deductible, copayment, or coinsurance. The advanced written notice of a formulary change must be provided no fewer than 30 days before the expected date of the removal or reassignment. This bill provides that a disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan that provides a prescription drug benefit shall make the formulary and all drug costs associated with the formulary available to plan sponsors and individuals prior to selection or enrollment. Further, the bill provides that no disability insurance policy, self-insured health plan, or pharmacy benefit manager acting on behalf of a disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan may remove a prescription LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 drug from the formulary except at the time of coverage renewal. Finally, the bill provides that advanced written notice of a formulary change must be provided no fewer than 90 days before the expected date of the removal or reassignment of a prescription drug on the formulary. Pharmacy networks Under the bill, if an enrollee utilizes a pharmacy or pharmacist in a preferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists, no disability insurance policy or self- insured health plan that provides a prescription drug benefit or pharmacy benefit manager that provides services under a contract with a policy or plan may require the enrollee to pay any amount or impose on the enrollee any condition that would not be required if the enrollee utilized a different pharmacy or pharmacist in the same preferred network. Further, the bill provides that any disability insurance policy or self-insured health plan that provides a prescription drug benefit, or any pharmacy benefit manager that provides services under a contract with a policy or plan, that has established a preferred network of pharmacies or pharmacists must reimburse each pharmacy or pharmacist in the same network at the same rates. Audits of pharmacists and pharmacies This bill makes several changes to audits of pharmacists and pharmacies. The bill requires an entity that conducts audits of pharmacists and pharmacies to ensure that each pharmacist or pharmacy audited by the entity is audited under the same standards and parameters as other similarly situated pharmacists or pharmacies audited by the entity, that the entity randomizes the prescriptions that the entity audits and the entity audits the same number of prescriptions in each prescription benefit tier, and that each audit of a prescription reimbursed under Part D of the federal Medicare program is conducted separately from audits of prescriptions reimbursed under other policies or plans. The bill prohibits any pharmacy benefit manager from recouping reimbursements made to a pharmacist or pharmacy for errors that involve no actual financial harm to an enrollee or a policy or plan sponsor unless the error is the result of the pharmacist or pharmacy failing to comply with a formal corrective action plan. The bill further prohibits any pharmacy benefit manager from using extrapolation in calculating reimbursements that it may recoup, and instead requires a pharmacy benefit manager to base the finding of errors for which reimbursements will be recouped on an actual error in reimbursement and not a projection of the number of patients served having a similar diagnosis or on a projection of the number of similar orders or refills for similar prescription drugs. The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager that recoups any reimbursements made to a pharmacist or pharmacy for an error that was the cause of financial harm must return the recouped reimbursement to the enrollee or the policy or plan sponsor who was harmed by the error. Pharmacy benefit manager fiduciary and disclosure requirements The bill provides that a pharmacy benefit manager owes a fiduciary duty to a health benefit plan sponsor. The bill also requires that a pharmacy benefit LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 manager annually disclose all of the following information to the health benefit plan sponsor: 1. The indirect profit received by the pharmacy benefit manager from owning a pharmacy or health service provider. 2. Any payments made to a consultant or broker who works on behalf of the plan sponsor. 3. From the amounts received from drug manufacturers, the amounts retained by the pharmacy benefit manager that are related to the plan sponsor[s claims or bona fide service fees. 4. The amounts received from network pharmacies and pharmacists and the amount retained by the pharmacy benefit manager. Discriminatory reimbursement of 340B entities The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from taking certain actions with respect to 340B covered entities, pharmacies and pharmacists contracted with 340B covered entities, and patients who obtain prescription drugs from 340B covered entities. The 340B drug pricing program is a federal program that requires pharmaceutical manufacturers that participate in the federal Medicaid program to sell outpatient drugs at discounted prices to certain health care organizations that provide health care for uninsured and low-income patients. Entities that are eligible for discounted prices under the 340B drug pricing program include federally qualified health centers, critical access hospitals, and certain public and nonprofit disproportionate share hospitals. The bill prohibits pharmacy benefit managers from doing any of the following: 1. Refusing to reimburse a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity for dispensing 340B drugs. 2. Imposing requirements or restrictions on 340B covered entities or pharmacies or pharmacists contracted with 340B covered entities that are not imposed on other entities, pharmacies, or pharmacists. 3. Reimbursing a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity for a 340B drug at a rate lower than the amount paid for the same drug to pharmacies or pharmacists that are not 340B covered entities or pharmacies or pharmacists contracted with a 340B covered entity. 4. Assessing a fee, charge back, or other adjustment against a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity after a claim has been paid or adjudicated. 5. Restricting the access of a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity to a third-party payer[s pharmacy network solely because the 340B covered entity or the pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity participates in the 340B drug pricing program. 6. Requiring a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 with a 340B covered entity to contract with a specific pharmacy or pharmacist or health benefit plan in order to access a third-party payer[s pharmacy network. 7. Imposing a restriction or an additional charge on a patient who obtains a 340B drug from a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity. 8. Restricting the methods by which a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity may dispense or deliver 340B drugs. 9. Requiring a 340B covered entity or a pharmacy or pharmacist contracted with a 340B covered entity to share pharmacy bills or invoices with a pharmacy benefit manager, a third-party payer, or a health benefit plan. Application of prescription drug payments Health insurance policies and plans often apply cost-sharing requirements and out-of-pocket maximum amounts to the benefits covered by the policy or plan. A cost-sharing requirement is a share of covered benefits that an insured is required to pay under a health insurance policy or plan. Cost-sharing requirements include copayments, deductibles, and coinsurance. An out-of-pocket maximum amount is a limit specified by a policy or plan on the amount that an insured pays, and, once that limit is reached, the policy or plan covers the benefit entirely. The bill generally requires health insurance policies that offer prescription drug benefits, self-insured health plans, and pharmacy benefit managers acting on behalf of policies or plans to apply amounts paid by or on behalf of an individual covered under the policy or plan for brand name prescription drugs to any cost- sharing requirement or to any calculation of an out-of-pocket maximum amount of the policy or plan. Health insurance policies are referred to in the bill as disability insurance policies. Prohibited retaliation The bill prohibits a pharmacy benefit manager from retaliating against a pharmacy or pharmacist for reporting an alleged violation of certain laws applicable to pharmacy benefit managers or for exercising certain rights or remedies. Retaliation includes terminating or refusing to renew a contract with a pharmacy or pharmacist, subjecting a pharmacy or pharmacist to increased audits, or failing to promptly pay a pharmacy or pharmacist any money that the pharmacy benefit manager owes to the pharmacy or pharmacist. The bill provides that a pharmacy or pharmacist may bring an action in court for injunctive relief if a pharmacy benefit manager is retaliating against the pharmacy or pharmacist as provided in the bill. In addition to equitable relief, the court may award a pharmacy or pharmacist that prevails in such an action reasonable attorney fees and costs. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-1278/1 JPC:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 203 In Committee
SB195 Serving maple syrup in a public eating place. Under this bill, a public eating place may not serve a food product identified as maple syrup unless the product is made entirely of maple syrup, as the term is defined in federal regulations. In Committee
AB230 Requiring retail sellers to accept cash and providing a penalty. (FE) This bill requires a retailer who sells goods or services from a physical location to accept cash as payment during a face-to-face sale with a consumer at one or more points of sale at the physical location, unless the person is otherwise prohibited by law from accepting cash. A retailer who violates this requirement is subject to a civil forfeiture of $200 to $5,000. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB294 Membership on the Board of Nursing. Under current law, the Board of Nursing has several powers and duties related to the licensure of nurses and the regulation of the practice of nursing in this state. The Board of Nursing consists of the following nine members appointed for staggered four-year terms: five currently licensed registered nurses, one currently licensed practical nurse, one individual who is either a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse, and two public members. This bill revises the membership of the Board of Nursing to provide that the board consist of three currently licensed registered nurses, one currently licensed practical nurse, one currently certified advanced practice nurse prescriber, one nurse educator, one member who is either a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse, and two public members. The bill provides that the two members of the Board of Nursing who were appointed as currently licensed registered nurses whose terms expire the earliest following the effective date of the bill must be replaced by a currently certified advanced practice nurse prescriber and a nurse educator after their terms expire. In Committee
SB282 Membership on the Board of Nursing. Under current law, the Board of Nursing has several powers and duties related to the licensure of nurses and the regulation of the practice of nursing in this state. The Board of Nursing consists of the following nine members appointed for staggered four-year terms: five currently licensed registered nurses, one currently licensed practical nurse, one individual who is either a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse, and two public members. This bill revises the membership of the Board of Nursing to provide that the board consist of three currently licensed registered nurses, one currently licensed practical nurse, one currently certified advanced practice nurse prescriber, one nurse educator, one member who is either a licensed registered nurse or a licensed practical nurse, and two public members. The bill provides that the two members of the Board of Nursing who were appointed as currently licensed registered nurses whose terms expire the earliest following the effective date of the bill must be replaced by a currently certified advanced practice nurse prescriber and a nurse educator after their terms expire. In Committee
SB242 Required ratio of journeyworkers to apprentices in apprenticeship programs and contracts. Under current law, the Department of Workforce Development may not prescribe, enforce, or authorize a ratio of apprentices to journeyworkers for apprenticeship programs or apprentice contracts that requires more than one journeyworker for each apprentice. This bill increases the allowable ratio to one journeyworker to two apprentices. In Committee
SB36 An income tax exemption for cash tips paid to an employee. (FE) This bill creates an income tax exemption for cash tips received by an employee from the customers of the employee[s employer. Because this bill relates to an exemption from state or local taxes, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Tax Exemptions for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-0181/1 KP:amn 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 36 In Committee
SB228 Prohibiting school boards and independent charter schools from providing food containing certain ingredients in free or reduced-price meals. This bill prohibits school boards and independent charter schools from providing food that contains brominated vegetable oil, potassium bromate, propylparaben, azodicarbonamide, or red dye 3 to pupils as part of free or reduced- price meals provided under the National School Lunch Program or the federal School Breakfast Program. The bill does not prohibit school boards and independent charter schools from allowing private vendors to serve food containing any of those ingredients on school premises or at school-sponsored activities. In Committee
AB310 Creating a nutrient loss reduction grant program. (FE) This bill creates a nutrient loss reduction grant program, under which the Department of Agriculture, Trade and Consumer Protection may award grants to farmers for the purpose of purchasing enhanced efficiency fertilizer products, implementing variable rate technology, or preparing a nutrient management plan. Under the bill, an Xenhanced efficiency fertilizer productY is a controlled-release or slow-release fertilizer formulation or a product, added to fertilizer, that includes a urease inhibitor or a nitrification inhibitor. XVariable rate technologyY is defined under the bill as the practice of testing soil in sections of six acres or less using georeferenced data points and applying fertilizer at a prescribed rate for each section depending on the results of the soil samples. A Xnutrient management planY is a plan for using commercial fertilizer, manure, or organic byproducts in a manner that reduces nutrient loss. Under the bill, if a grant will be used for purchasing and using an enhanced efficiency fertilizer product, the grant amount may not exceed the lesser of $7 per acre or 50 percent of the cost of the product. If a grant will be used for implementing variable rate technology, the grant amount may not exceed the lesser of $8 per acre or 50 percent of the cost of soil sampling. If a grant will be used for preparing a nutrient management plan, the grant may not exceed the lesser of $2 per acre or 50 percent of the cost of preparing the plan. In addition, a grant recipient may not receive more than $20,000 in any given year under the grant program. The bill allows an applicant to receive a grant that covers multiple allowable activities in a single year. The bill also allows an agricultural retailer (a person that supplies resources, materials, and products to farmers) to submit an application for a grant on behalf of a farmer. Finally, the bill allows DATCP to request certain information and materials from a grant applicant or recipient, including land and field information, receipts and invoices, and an attestation that the applicant is not receiving any other funding or incentives for the activities funded by the grant. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB312 Hours for voting by absentee ballot in person at the office of the municipal clerk or an alternate site. (FE) Under current law, a voter may vote by absentee ballot in person at the office of the municipal clerk or at an alternate site as near as practicable to the clerk[s office, as designated by the municipality. The period for voting absentee in person begins 14 days preceding the election and ends on the Sunday preceding the election, and the municipality must state the hours in the type E election notice, which, with one exception, is required to be published on the fourth Tuesday preceding each primary or election. Under this bill, the office of the municipal clerk or alternate site must be open for at least 20 hours during the period for voting absentee in person, and the type E notice must state the specific office hours during which a voter may cast an in- person absentee ballot without prior appointment. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB237 The age at which an infant is covered under the safe haven law. Under current law, commonly referred to as the Xsafe haven law,Y a child whom a law enforcement officer, emergency medical technician, or hospital staff member reasonably believes to be 72 hours old or younger (newborn infant) may be taken into custody under circumstances in which a parent of the newborn infant relinquishes custody of the newborn infant to the law enforcement officer, emergency medical technician, or hospital staff member and does not express an intent to return for the newborn infant or in which a parent of the newborn infant leaves the child in a newborn infant safety device installed in a supporting wall of a hospital, fire station, or law enforcement agency. Under current law, a parent who relinquishes custody of a child under the safe haven law and any person who assists the parent in that relinquishment are immune from any civil or criminal liability for any good faith act or omission in connection with the relinquishment. This bill changes the maximum age at which a newborn infant falls under the safe haven law from 72 hours old to 30 days old. In Committee
SB243 The age at which an infant is covered under the safe haven law. Under current law, commonly referred to as the Xsafe haven law,Y a child whom a law enforcement officer, emergency medical technician, or hospital staff member reasonably believes to be 72 hours old or younger (newborn infant) may be taken into custody under circumstances in which a parent of the newborn infant relinquishes custody of the newborn infant to the law enforcement officer, emergency medical technician, or hospital staff member and does not express an intent to return for the newborn infant or in which a parent of the newborn infant leaves the child in a newborn infant safety device installed in a supporting wall of a hospital, fire station, or law enforcement agency. Under current law, a parent who relinquishes custody of a child under the safe haven law and any person who assists the parent in that relinquishment are immune from any civil or criminal liability for any good faith act or omission in connection with the relinquishment. This bill changes the maximum age at which a newborn infant falls under the safe haven law from 72 hours old to 30 days old. LRB-2839/1 EHS:skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 243 In Committee
SB230 Requiring retail sellers to accept cash and providing a penalty. (FE) This bill requires a retailer who sells goods or services from a physical location to accept cash as payment during a face-to-face sale with a consumer at one or more points of sale at the physical location, unless the person is otherwise prohibited by law from accepting cash. A retailer who violates this requirement is subject to a civil forfeiture of $200 to $5,000. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB44 Local regulation of fowl. This bill prohibits political subdivisions and sewerage districts from prohibiting the keeping of up to four chickens or quail (fowl) by property owners or certain lessors on properties zoned for residential use. The bill specifically allows political subdivisions and sewerage districts to do any of the following with regard to the keeping of fowl: 1. Require a keeper of fowl to obtain a permit. 2. Require notification of adjoining land owners. 3. Impose reasonable regulations related to the location of fowl housing on a property. 4. Prohibit the keeping of roosters. 5. Impose reasonable cleanliness standards. In Committee
SB7 Prohibiting a foreign adversary from acquiring agricultural or forestry land in this state. This bill generally prohibits a foreign adversary from acquiring agricultural or forestry land in this state. In the bill, “foreign adversary” means a foreign government or nongovernment person determined by the federal secretary of commerce to have engaged in a long-term pattern or serious instances of conduct significantly adverse to the national security of the United States or security and safety of U.S. persons. Current law generally prohibits a nonresident alien or a corporation that is not created under federal law or the laws of any state (foreign person) from acquiring, owning, or holding more than 640 acres of land in this state. However, that prohibition does not apply to any of the following activities: 1. An exploration mining lease and land used for certain mining and associated activities. LRB-0067/1 KRP:amn 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 7 2. Certain manufacturing activities. 3. Certain mercantile activities. 4. A lease for exploration or production of oil, gas, coal, shale, and related hydrocarbons, including by-products of the production, and land used in connection with the exploration or production. Those exceptions have been interpreted to be “extremely broad, embracing almost every conceivable business activity [other than a]ctivities relating to agriculture and forestry.” See Opinion of Wis. Att’y Gen., OAG 11-14, ¶5, available at https://www.doj.state.wi.us. In other words, under current law, a foreign person may acquire, own, and hold unlimited amounts of land for most nonagricultural and nonforestry purposes, but a foreign person may not acquire, own, or hold more than 640 acres of land for agricultural or forestry purposes. The bill retains the current law restriction on foreign person ownership of agricultural and forestry land and adds a provision that prohibits a foreign adversary from acquiring any land for agricultural or forestry purposes. In Committee
SB262 Assisted living facility referral agencies and providing a penalty. This bill imposes several requirements related to referring individuals to an assisted living facility in exchange for a fee collected from the assisted living facility. The bill defines an Xassisted living facilityY as a community-based residential facility, a residential care apartment complex, or an adult family home. Under the bill, an agency that refers a prospective resident to an assisted living facility must disclose to the resident any relationship the referral agency has with the assisted living facility, any fee that the assisted living facility will pay to the referral agency, and the fact that the referral agency lists on its website only those assisted living facilities with which the referral agency has a contractual relationship. In addition, under the bill, a prospective resident may at any time terminate all services provided to the resident by the referral agency, including the use of the resident[s personal information. Any fee charged or collected by a referral agency from an assisted living facility for a referral must be set in advance, must be consistent with fair market value, and must be charged or collected only after a resident confirms in writing that the resident utilized the referral agency to move into the assisted living facility. A fee may not be based upon the potential value of a resident to an assisted living facility or a percentage of the value of a professional service provided by the assisted living facility. A referral agency may charge or LRB-2950/1 KMS:skw&wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 262 collect only one fee per referred resident, and no fee may be charged or collected if a resident moves into a referred assisted living facility more than one year after the referral agency and assisted living facility entered into a referral agreement for that resident. A referral agency that violates the provisions of the bill may be required to forfeit up to $1,000 per violation. In Committee
AB207 Information provided to voters concerning proposed constitutional amendments and other statewide referenda. (FE) Current law requires that each proposed constitutional amendment, contingent referendum, advisory referendum, or other proposal requiring a statewide referendum that is passed by the legislature include a complete statement of the ballot question to be voted on at the referendum. The ballot question may not be worded in such a manner as to require a negative vote to approve a proposition or an affirmative vote to disapprove a proposition. Also under current law, the attorney general must prepare an explanatory statement for each proposed constitutional amendment or other statewide referendum describing the effect of either a XyesY or XnoY vote on each ballot question. This bill eliminates the requirement that the attorney general prepare such an explanatory statement. Instead, the bill requires that each proposal for a constitutional amendment or other statewide referendum that passes both houses of the legislature contain a complete state referendum disclosure notice that includes all of the following: 1. The date of the referendum. 2. The entire text of the ballot question and proposed constitutional amendment or enactment, if any. 3. To the extent applicable, a plain language summary of current law. 4. An explanation in plain language of the effect of the proposed constitutional amendment or other statewide referendum. 5. An explanation in plain language of the effect of a XyesY vote and the effect of a XnoY vote. Under the bill, the content under items 3 to 5 combined may not exceed one page on paper not less than 8 1/2 inches by 11 inches and printed in at least 12- point font. Under the bill, the complete state referendum disclosure notice agreed to by both houses of the legislature must be included in the type C notice entitled XNotice of ReferendumY that each county clerk must provide prior to any referendum. Current law requires that the text of the type C notice be posted at polling places on election day in such a manner as to be readily observed by voters entering the polling place or waiting in line to vote. As such, the complete state referendum disclosure notice must be so posted at the polls on election day. Additionally, for at least 30 days prior to the date of a statewide referendum, the complete state referendum disclosure notice must be published by the Elections Commission on the website used for voter registration, currently titled MyVote Wisconsin, or other voter public access website maintained by the commission and must be posted by each county clerk at the county clerk[s office and published by the county clerk on the county clerk[s website. Finally, the notice must be included with absentee ballots provided to voters for voting in a statewide referendum. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB193 Ratification of the Respiratory Care Interstate Compact. (FE) RESPIRATORY CARE INTERSTATE COMPACT This bill ratifies and enters Wisconsin into the Respiratory Care Interstate Compact, which provides for the ability of a respiratory care practitioner to become eligible to practice in other compact states. Significant provisions of the compact include the following: 1. The creation of a Respiratory Care Interstate Compact Commission, which includes one administrator or staff member of the licensure authorities of each member state. The commission has various powers and duties granted in the compact, including establishing bylaws, promulgating binding rules for the compact, hiring officers, electing or appointing employees, and establishing and electing an executive committee. The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on licensees of member states to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff. 2. A process whereby a respiratory care practitioner may obtain a compact privilege to practice in another member state. A licensee's primary state of residence is considered to be his or her home state, and any other member state in which the licensee wishes to practice is considered a remote state. A licensee providing respiratory therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege is required under the compact to function within the scope of practice authorized by the remote state. A remote state may take actions against a respiratory care practitioner[s compact privilege within that remote state, and if a respiratory care practitioner[s home state license is encumbered, the respiratory care practitioner loses his or her compact privilege in all remote states until the home state license is no longer encumbered and two years have elapsed from the date on which the license is no longer encumbered. 3. The ability of member states to issue subpoenas that are enforceable in other states. 4. The creation of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure and disciplinary action information on respiratory care practitioners. The compact provides that member states are responsible for reporting any adverse action against a licensee and for monitoring the database to determine whether adverse action has been taken against a licensee. A member state must submit a uniform data set to the data system with certain information specified in the compact, as required by the rules of the commission. 5. Provisions regarding resolutions of disputes among member states and between member and nonmember states, including a process for termination of a state[s membership in the compact if the state defaults on its obligations under the compact. The compact becomes effective in this state upon enactment in seven states. The compact provides that it may be amended upon enactment of an amendment by all member states. A state may withdraw from the compact by repealing the statute authorizing the compact, but the compact provides that a withdrawal does not take effect until 180 days after the effective date of that repeal. STATUTES AND RULES EXAMINATION FOR RESPIRATORY CARE PRACTITIONERS The bill prohibits the Medical Examining Board from requiring an applicant to pass a statutes and rules examination as a condition of certification as a respiratory care practitioner. The bill allows the board to require an applicant to affirm that the applicant has read and understands the statutes and rules that apply to the applicant's practice as a respiratory care practitioner. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB190 Ratification of the Respiratory Care Interstate Compact. (FE) RESPIRATORY CARE INTERSTATE COMPACT This bill ratifies and enters Wisconsin into the Respiratory Care Interstate Compact, which provides for the ability of a respiratory care practitioner to become eligible to practice in other compact states. Significant provisions of the compact include the following: 1. The creation of a Respiratory Care Interstate Compact Commission, which includes one administrator or staff member of the licensure authorities of each member state. The commission has various powers and duties granted in the compact, including establishing bylaws, promulgating binding rules for the compact, hiring officers, electing or appointing employees, and establishing and electing an executive committee. The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on licensees of member states to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff. 2. A process whereby a respiratory care practitioner may obtain a compact privilege to practice in another member state. A licensee's primary state of residence is considered to be his or her home state, and any other member state in which the licensee wishes to practice is considered a remote state. A licensee providing respiratory therapy in a remote state under the compact privilege is required under the compact to function within the scope of practice authorized by the remote state. A remote state may take actions against a respiratory care practitioner[s compact privilege within that remote state, and if a respiratory care practitioner[s home state license is encumbered, the respiratory care practitioner loses his or her compact privilege in all remote states until the home state license is no longer encumbered and two years have elapsed from the date on which the license is no longer encumbered. 3. The ability of member states to issue subpoenas that are enforceable in other states. 4. The creation of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure and disciplinary action information on respiratory care practitioners. The compact provides that member states are responsible for reporting any adverse action against a licensee and for monitoring the database to determine whether adverse action has been taken against a licensee. A member state must submit a uniform data set to the data system with certain information specified in the compact, as required by the rules of the commission. 5. Provisions regarding resolutions of disputes among member states and between member and nonmember states, including a process for termination of a state[s membership in the compact if the state defaults on its obligations under the compact. The compact becomes effective in this state upon enactment in seven states. The compact provides that it may be amended upon enactment of an amendment by LRB-2628/1 MED:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 190 all member states. A state may withdraw from the compact by repealing the statute authorizing the compact, but the compact provides that a withdrawal does not take effect until 180 days after the effective date of that repeal. STATUTES AND RULES EXAMINATION FOR RESPIRATORY CARE PRACTITIONERS The bill prohibits the Medical Examining Board from requiring an applicant to pass a statutes and rules examination as a condition of certification as a respiratory care practitioner. The bill allows the board to require an applicant to affirm that the applicant has read and understands the statutes and rules that apply to the applicant's practice as a respiratory care practitioner. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB148 Interpreter action by telephone or live audiovisual means in civil or criminal proceedings. Under current law, in any civil or criminal proceeding other than a trial, a court may permit an interpreter to act by telephone or live audiovisual means. This bill removes the exclusion for trials, so that an interpreter may act by telephone or live audiovisual means in any civil or criminal proceeding. In Committee
SB215 Town clerk and treasurer appointments, publication requirements for proposed budget summary and notice of public hearing, and discontinuance of highways. (FE) This bill makes changes to various town procedures. Current law provides that a town may combine certain positions, such as the town clerk and the town treasurer, and provides that the combination takes effect on the latest date that any current term of an office to be combined expires. The bill retains that deadline, but allows the town board to provide that the combination of offices takes effect immediately as both positions become vacant or, if the person appointed to the combined office holds one of the offices to be combined, immediately upon a vacancy in the other office to be combined. Current law also provides that a town with a population of 2,500 or more may move from an elected clerk, treasurer, or combined office of clerk and treasurer to an appointed clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer by a vote of the electors at a town meeting. Under current law, a town with a population of under LRB-1061/1 SWB&EVM:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 215 2,500 may only move from an elected clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer to an appointed position through a referendum. The bill allows a town of any size to move from an elected position to an appointed one by a vote of the electors at a town meeting. Current law also prohibits a town[s change from an elected to an appointed clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer from taking effect until the end of the current elected term. Under the bill, a town may move to an appointed clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer position during an elected term when there is a vacancy in the position. Under current law, a town treasurer is permitted to appoint a deputy treasurer, while a town clerk may appoint one or more deputies. The bill provides that a town treasurer may appoint one or more deputies. The bill also provides that deputy town clerks and deputy town treasurers need not be residents of the town. The bill also changes the publication and notice requirements for towns with respect to the public hearing regarding the town[s proposed budget. Current law requires that towns, cities, and villages conduct a public hearing on a proposed budget. Under current law, cities and villages must provide a summary of the proposed budget and notice of the budget public hearing and may do so by publishing the summary and notice in a newspaper, posting it in three locations, or posting it in one location and on a website maintained by the municipality. Current law also requires towns to provide a summary of the proposed budget and notice of the budget public hearing, but towns must post the summary and notice in three locations. This bill eliminates the limitation on how towns must provide the summary and notice, instead allowing towns the same options as cities and villages. Finally, under current law, every highway ceases to be a public highway four years from the date on which it was laid out, except the parts of the highway that have been opened, traveled, or worked within that time. The bill eliminates the travel exception from consideration by a town board in determining whether a highway has ceased to be a public highway. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
AB214 Town clerk and treasurer appointments, publication requirements for proposed budget summary and notice of public hearing, and discontinuance of highways. (FE) This bill makes changes to various town procedures. Current law provides that a town may combine certain positions, such as the town clerk and the town treasurer, and provides that the combination takes effect on the latest date that any current term of an office to be combined expires. The bill retains that deadline, but allows the town board to provide that the combination of offices takes effect immediately as both positions become vacant or, if the person appointed to the combined office holds one of the offices to be combined, immediately upon a vacancy in the other office to be combined. Current law also provides that a town with a population of 2,500 or more may move from an elected clerk, treasurer, or combined office of clerk and treasurer to an appointed clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer by a vote of the electors at a town meeting. Under current law, a town with a population of under 2,500 may only move from an elected clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer to an appointed position through a referendum. The bill allows a town of any size to move from an elected position to an appointed one by a vote of the electors at a town meeting. Current law also prohibits a town[s change from an elected to an appointed clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer from taking effect until the end of the current elected term. Under the bill, a town may move to an appointed clerk, treasurer, or combined clerk and treasurer position during an elected term when there is a vacancy in the position. Under current law, a town treasurer is permitted to appoint a deputy treasurer, while a town clerk may appoint one or more deputies. The bill provides that a town treasurer may appoint one or more deputies. The bill also provides that deputy town clerks and deputy town treasurers need not be residents of the town. The bill also changes the publication and notice requirements for towns with respect to the public hearing regarding the town[s proposed budget. Current law requires that towns, cities, and villages conduct a public hearing on a proposed budget. Under current law, cities and villages must provide a summary of the proposed budget and notice of the budget public hearing and may do so by publishing the summary and notice in a newspaper, posting it in three locations, or posting it in one location and on a website maintained by the municipality. Current law also requires towns to provide a summary of the proposed budget and notice of the budget public hearing, but towns must post the summary and notice in three locations. This bill eliminates the limitation on how towns must provide the summary and notice, instead allowing towns the same options as cities and villages. Finally, under current law, every highway ceases to be a public highway four years from the date on which it was laid out, except the parts of the highway that have been opened, traveled, or worked within that time. The bill eliminates the travel exception from consideration by a town board in determining whether a highway has ceased to be a public highway. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB19 Fee waivers for state park vehicle admission receipts to pupils with Every Kid Outdoors passes. (FE) Under current law, no person may operate a vehicle in any state park or in certain other recreational areas on state land unless the vehicle displays a vehicle admission receipt. This bill requires the Department of Natural Resources to waive the fee for an annual vehicle admission receipt issued to the parent or guardian of a child who possesses a valid Every Kid Outdoors pass issued by the U.S. National Park Service. Under current federal law, such a pass authorizes free admission to national parks for any 4th grader and his or her family. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB18 Fee waivers for state park vehicle admission receipts to pupils with Every Kid Outdoors passes. (FE) Under current law, no person may operate a vehicle in any state park or in certain other recreational areas on state land unless the vehicle displays a vehicle admission receipt. This bill requires the Department of Natural Resources to waive the fee for an annual vehicle admission receipt issued to the parent or guardian of a child who possesses a valid Every Kid Outdoors pass issued by the U.S. National Park Service. Under current federal law, such a pass authorizes free admission to national parks for any 4th grader and his or her family. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB255 Assisted living facility referral agencies and providing a penalty. This bill imposes several requirements related to referring individuals to an assisted living facility in exchange for a fee collected from the assisted living facility. The bill defines an Xassisted living facilityY as a community-based residential facility, a residential care apartment complex, or an adult family home. Under the bill, an agency that refers a prospective resident to an assisted living facility must disclose to the resident any relationship the referral agency has with the assisted living facility, any fee that the assisted living facility will pay to the referral agency, and the fact that the referral agency lists on its website only those assisted living facilities with which the referral agency has a contractual relationship. In addition, under the bill, a prospective resident may at any time terminate all services provided to the resident by the referral agency, including the use of the resident[s personal information. Any fee charged or collected by a referral agency from an assisted living facility for a referral must be set in advance, must be consistent with fair market value, and must be charged or collected only after a resident confirms in writing that the resident utilized the referral agency to move into the assisted living facility. A fee may not be based upon the potential value of a resident to an assisted living facility or a percentage of the value of a professional service provided by the assisted living facility. A referral agency may charge or collect only one fee per referred resident, and no fee may be charged or collected if a resident moves into a referred assisted living facility more than one year after the referral agency and assisted living facility entered into a referral agreement for that resident. A referral agency that violates the provisions of the bill may be required to forfeit up to $1,000 per violation. In Committee
SB304 Hours for voting by absentee ballot in person at the office of the municipal clerk or an alternate site. (FE) Under current law, a voter may vote by absentee ballot in person at the office of the municipal clerk or at an alternate site as near as practicable to the clerk[s office, as designated by the municipality. The period for voting absentee in person begins 14 days preceding the election and ends on the Sunday preceding the election, and the municipality must state the hours in the type E election notice, which, with one exception, is required to be published on the fourth Tuesday preceding each primary or election. Under this bill, the office of the municipal clerk or alternate site must be open for at least 20 hours during the period for voting absentee in person, and the type E notice must state the specific office hours during which a voter may cast an in- person absentee ballot without prior appointment. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-2018/1 MPG:skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 304 In Committee
AB277 Requirements for proposed administrative rules that impose any costs. Under current law, if a proposed administrative rule is reasonably expected to pass along $10,000,000 or more in implementation and compliance costs to businesses, local governmental units, and individuals over any two-year period, the agency proposing the rule must stop working on the proposed rule until 1) the agency modifies the proposed rule to reduce the expected costs or 2) a bill is enacted that allows the agency to promulgate the proposed rule. These requirements do not apply to emergency rules or to certain rules proposed by the Department of Natural Resources that relate to air quality and that are required under federal law. This bill changes those requirements so that the requirements apply when a proposed rule is reasonably expected to pass along any amount of implementation and compliance costs to businesses, local governmental units, and individuals over any two-year period. Under the bill, the agency proposing such a rule must stop working on the proposed rule until 1) the agency modifies the proposed rule to eliminate the expected costs; 2) a bill is enacted that allows the agency to promulgate the proposed rule; or 3) the agency promulgates or has promulgated a different rule, in the same calendar year as proposing the rule at issue, that is reasonably expected to reduce implementation and compliance costs to businesses, local governmental units, and individuals over any two-year period, in an amount that will offset the amount of costs resulting from the proposed rule at issue. The bill also requires an agency, in the economic impact analysis of a proposed rule that the agency is required to prepare, to include an estimate of the total implementation and compliance cost savings that are reasonably expected to be realized by businesses, local governmental units, and individuals as a result of the proposed rule, expressed as a single dollar figure. In Committee
AB295 Allowing certified advanced practice nurse prescribers to engage in the practice of radiography. Under current law, no person may engage in the practice of radiography unless the person is granted a license by the Radiography Examining Board. XPractice of radiographyY is defined to mean the imaging of anatomical structures, produced by the combined application of X-rays to the human body and the application of knowledge in the fields of anatomy, radiographic positioning, and radiographic technique, and knowledge of principles of radiation protection, for the purpose of medical diagnosis. Current law provides several exceptions from the requirement that a person be licensed by the Radiography Examining Board in order to engage in the practice of radiography, including for physicians, chiropractors, dentists, and physician assistants. This bill adds certified advanced practice nurse prescribers to the list of persons who are not required to obtain a license from the Radiography Examining Board to engage in the practice of radiography. In Committee
SB289 Requirements for proposed administrative rules that impose any costs. Under current law, if a proposed administrative rule is reasonably expected to pass along $10,000,000 or more in implementation and compliance costs to businesses, local governmental units, and individuals over any two-year period, the agency proposing the rule must stop working on the proposed rule until 1) the agency modifies the proposed rule to reduce the expected costs or 2) a bill is enacted that allows the agency to promulgate the proposed rule. These requirements do not apply to emergency rules or to certain rules proposed by the Department of Natural Resources that relate to air quality and that are required under federal law. This bill changes those requirements so that the requirements apply when a proposed rule is reasonably expected to pass along any amount of implementation and compliance costs to businesses, local governmental units, and individuals over any two-year period. Under the bill, the agency proposing such a rule must stop LRB-2514/1 MED:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 289 working on the proposed rule until 1) the agency modifies the proposed rule to eliminate the expected costs; 2) a bill is enacted that allows the agency to promulgate the proposed rule; or 3) the agency promulgates or has promulgated a different rule, in the same calendar year as proposing the rule at issue, that is reasonably expected to reduce implementation and compliance costs to businesses, local governmental units, and individuals over any two-year period, in an amount that will offset the amount of costs resulting from the proposed rule at issue. The bill also requires an agency, in the economic impact analysis of a proposed rule that the agency is required to prepare, to include an estimate of the total implementation and compliance cost savings that are reasonably expected to be realized by businesses, local governmental units, and individuals as a result of the proposed rule, expressed as a single dollar figure. In Committee
SB281 Allowing certified advanced practice nurse prescribers to engage in the practice of radiography. Under current law, no person may engage in the practice of radiography unless the person is granted a license by the Radiography Examining Board. XPractice of radiographyY is defined to mean the imaging of anatomical structures, produced by the combined application of X-rays to the human body and the application of knowledge in the fields of anatomy, radiographic positioning, and radiographic technique, and knowledge of principles of radiation protection, for the purpose of medical diagnosis. Current law provides several exceptions from the requirement that a person be licensed by the Radiography Examining Board in order to engage in the practice of radiography, including for physicians, chiropractors, dentists, and physician assistants. This bill adds certified advanced practice nurse prescribers to the list of persons who are not required to obtain a license from the Radiography Examining Board to engage in the practice of radiography. In Committee
AB36 Law enforcement and firefighter annuitants in the Wisconsin Retirement System who are rehired by a participating employer. (FE) Under current law, certain persons who receive a retirement or disability annuity from the Wisconsin Retirement System and who are hired by an employer that participates in the WRS must suspend that annuity and may not receive a WRS annuity payment until the employee is no longer in a WRS-covered position. This suspension applies to a person who 1) has reached his or her normal retirement date; 2) is appointed to a position with a WRS-participating employer or provides employee services to a WRS-participating employer; and 3) is expected to work at least two-thirds of what is considered full-time employment by the Department of Employee Trust Funds. This bill creates an exception to this suspension for an annuitant who retired from employment with a participating employer and who is subsequently rehired or provides employee services after retirement if 1) the annuitant is a retired law enforcement officer or firefighter; 2) at the time the annuitant initially retires from covered employment with a participating employer, the annuitant does not have an agreement with any participating employer to return to employment; and 3) the annuitant elects to not become a participating employee at the time the annuitant is rehired or enters into a contract after retirement. In other words, the bill allows an annuitant who was a law enforcement officer or firefighter to return to work with an employer that participates in the WRS and elect to not become a participating employee for purposes of the WRS but instead continue to receive an annuity from the WRS. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AJR10 The freedom to gather in places of worship during a state of emergency (second consideration). relating to: the freedom to gather in places of worship during a state of emergency (second consideration). Analysis by the Legislative Reference Bureau EXPLANATION OF PROPOSAL This proposed constitutional amendment, to be given second consideration by the 2025 legislature for submittal to the voters in November 2026, was first considered by the 2023 legislature in 2023 Senate Joint Resolution 54, which became 2023 Enrolled Joint Resolution 11. This constitutional amendment provides that the state or a political subdivision of the state may not order the closure of or forbid gatherings in places of worship in response to a state of emergency at the national, state, or local level, including an emergency related to public health. PROCEDURE FOR SECOND CONSIDERATION When a proposed constitutional amendment is before the legislature on second consideration, any change in the text approved by the preceding legislature causes the proposed constitutional amendment to revert to first consideration status so that second consideration approval would have to be given by the next legislature before the proposal may be submitted to the people for ratification [see joint rule 57 (2)]. If the legislature approves a proposed constitutional amendment on second LRB-0654/1 MPG:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature consideration, it must also set the date for submitting the proposed constitutional amendment to the people for ratification and must determine the question or questions to appear on the ballot. In Committee
AB156 Requiring child sexual abuse prevention education. (FE) Beginning in the 2026-27 school year, this bill requires each school board to provide a child sexual abuse prevention instructional program to pupils in grades four-year-old kindergarten to 12. Under the bill, each school board must include various topics in its child sexual abuse prevention instructional program, including 1) age-appropriated facts about sexual abuse; 2) how to communicate incidents of sexual abuse to trustworthy adults; 3) how to set and respect personal boundaries; and 4) information about giving and receiving consent. Annually before offering the child sexual abuse prevention instructional program to a pupil, the bill requires that each school board provide a pupil[s parent or guardian with information related to the instructional program, including approximately when it will be provided to the pupil, an explanation of how to opt out of the instructional program, an outline of the instructional program for the pupil[s specific grade, and facts and clear explanations related to specific child sexual abuse topics. Lastly, under the bill, a pupil[s parent or guardian may opt the pupil out of the instructional program by filing a written request with the pupil[s teacher or principal. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB180 Requiring the Department of Health Services to seek any necessary waiver to prohibit the purchase of candy or soft drinks with FoodShare benefits. (FE) This bill requires the Department of Health Services to request any necessary waiver from the U.S. Department of Agriculture to prohibit the purchase of candy or soft drinks with FoodShare benefits. Under current law, the federal food stamp program, known as the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program and called FoodShare in this state, provides benefits to eligible low-income households for the purchase of food. FoodShare is administered by DHS. The federal government pays the benefits for FoodShare while the state and federal government share the cost of administration. Current federal law defines the foods eligible for purchase under FoodShare. The bill requires DHS to seek any necessary waiver to prohibit the use of FoodShare benefits for the purchase of candy or soft drinks. If the waiver is granted, DHS must prohibit the use of FoodShare benefits to purchase candy or soft drinks. If any necessary waiver is not granted, the bill requires DHS to resubmit the waiver request annually until it is granted. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB196 Rehired annuitants in the Wisconsin Retirement System. (FE) Under current law, certain people who receive a retirement or disability annuity from the Wisconsin Retirement System (WRS) and who are hired by an employer that participates in the WRS must suspend that annuity and may not receive a WRS annuity payment until they are no longer in a WRS-covered position. This suspension applies to an annuitant who 1) has reached his or her normal retirement date; 2) is appointed to a position with a WRS-participating employer; and 3) is expected to work at least two-thirds of what is considered full-time employment by the Department of Employee Trust Funds. This bill allows such an annuitant who is hired by a WRS-participating employer as an employee or to provide employee services to not suspend his or her annuity for up to 60 months. The bill also requires WRS-participating employers that hire such annuitants to make payments to ETF equal to what they would have paid as required contributions for each rehired annuitant if the rehired annuitant had suspended his or her annuity. Under the bill, these payments are deposited into the employer reserve account. If the annuitant does not suspend the annuity and does not become an active WRS-participating employee, in the case of state employment, the annuitant is not eligible for group insurance benefits provided to active WRS-participating employees and may not use any of his or her service in the new position for any WRS purposes. If the annuitant opts to again become an active WRS-participating employee, the annuitant is eligible for all group insurance benefits provided to other participating employees and may accumulate additional years of creditable service under the WRS for the new period of WRS-covered employment. The bill also repeals two obsolete provisions related to WRS annuitants returning to WRS-covered employment during the public health emergency declared on March 12, 2020, by executive order 72, which ended on May 13, 2020. Because this bill relates to public employee retirement or pensions, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Retirement Systems for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB74 Ratification of the Social Work Licensure Compact. (FE) This bill ratifies and enters Wisconsin into the Social Work Licensure Compact, which provides for the ability of a social worker to become eligible to LRB-1310/1 MED:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 74 practice in other compact states. Significant provisions of the compact include the following: 1. The creation of a Social Work Licensure Compact Commission, which includes one member or administrator of the licensure authorities of each member state. The commission has various powers and duties granted in the compact, including establishing bylaws, promulgating binding rules for the compact, hiring officers, electing or appointing employees, and establishing and electing an executive committee. The commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each member state or impose fees on licensees of member states to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the commission and its staff. 2. The ability for a social worker who is licensed in a home state and satisfies certain other criteria to obtain a multistate license, which allows a social worker to practice social work in all other compact states (remote states) under a multistate authorization to practice. The compact specifies a number of requirements in order for an individual to obtain a social worker multistate license, including holding or being eligible for a social worker license in a home state, paying any required fees, and satisfying a number of criteria that are specific to the category of social work license the individual is seeking—bachelor[s, master[s, or clinical. A regulated social worker[s services in a remote state are subject to that member state[s regulatory authority. A remote state may take actions against a social worker[s multistate authorization to practice within that remote state, and if any adverse action is taken by a home state against a licensee[s multistate license, the social worker[s multistate authorization to practice in all other member states is deactivated until all encumbrances have been removed from the multistate license. 3. The ability of member states to issue subpoenas that are enforceable in other states. 4. The creation of a coordinated data system containing licensure and disciplinary action information on social workers. The compact requires all home state disciplinary orders that impose adverse actions against the license of a regulated social worker to include a statement that the regulated social worker[s multistate authorization to practice is deactivated in all member states until all conditions of the decision, order, or agreement are satisfied. A member state must submit a uniform data set to the data system on all individuals to whom the compact is applicable as required by the rules of the commission. 5. Provisions regarding resolutions of disputes among member states and between member and nonmember states, including a process for termination of a state[s membership in the compact if the state defaults on its obligations under the compact. Since the compact has already been enacted by the minimum number of states required for it to become active, the compact becomes effective in this state upon enactment of the bill. The compact provides that it may be amended upon enactment of an amendment by all member states. A state may withdraw from the compact by repealing the statute authorizing the compact, but the compact provides LRB-1310/1 MED:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 74 that a withdrawal does not take effect until 180 days after the effective date of that repeal. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB147 Interpreter action by telephone or live audiovisual means in civil or criminal proceedings. Under current law, in any civil or criminal proceeding other than a trial, a court may permit an interpreter to act by telephone or live audiovisual means. This bill removes the exclusion for trials, so that an interpreter may act by telephone or live audiovisual means in any civil or criminal proceeding. Crossed Over
SJR30 Congratulating the University of Wisconsin–Madison women’s hockey team on winning the 2025 NCAA Division I Women’s Hockey National Championship. Relating to: congratulating the University of Wisconsin]Madison women[s hockey team on winning the 2025 NCAA Division I Women[s Hockey National Championship. Crossed Over
SJR36 Congratulating the University of Wisconsin–La Crosse women’s gymnastics team on winning the 2025 National Collegiate Gymnastics Association Championship. Relating to: congratulating the University of Wisconsin]La Crosse women[s gymnastics team on winning the 2025 National Collegiate Gymnastics Association Championship. Crossed Over
SB267 The fee for filing limited liability company articles of organization with the Department of Financial Institutions. (FE) This bill expands the filing fee exception for a student entrepreneur who forms a limited liability company (LLC). Current law establishes a fee of $130 for filing LLC articles of organization with the Department of Financial Institutions. However, DFI may not collect this fee if the LLC members or organizers are all student entrepreneurs. A Xstudent entrepreneurY is defined as a student who is at least 18 years of age, enrolled in a postsecondary institution in this state, and an organizer or member of an LLC formed as a business start-up. This bill expands the definition of Xstudent entrepreneurY to include a student who is enrolled in a public, private, or tribal high school in this state or is homeschooled. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-0755/1 ARG:amn 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 267 In Committee
AB266 The fee for filing limited liability company articles of organization with the Department of Financial Institutions. (FE) This bill expands the filing fee exception for a student entrepreneur who forms a limited liability company (LLC). Current law establishes a fee of $130 for filing LLC articles of organization with the Department of Financial Institutions. However, DFI may not collect this fee if the LLC members or organizers are all student entrepreneurs. A Xstudent entrepreneurY is defined as a student who is at least 18 years of age, enrolled in a postsecondary institution in this state, and an organizer or member of an LLC formed as a business start-up. This bill expands the definition of Xstudent entrepreneurY to include a student who is enrolled in a public, private, or tribal high school in this state or is homeschooled. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AJR29 Celebrating May 7, 2025, as Skilled Trades Day in Wisconsin. Relating to: celebrating May 7, 2025, as Skilled Trades Day in Wisconsin. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
AJR18 Honoring the life and public service of Representative Jonathan Brostoff. Relating to: honoring the life and public service of Representative Jonathan Brostoff. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
AJR14 Honoring the life and public service of Representative David O. Martin. Relating to: honoring the life and public service of Representative David O. Martin. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
AJR4 Honoring the life and public service of Justice David T. Prosser Jr. Relating to: honoring the life and public service of Justice David T. Prosser Jr. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SJR2 Requiring photographic identification to vote in any election (second consideration). To create section 1m of article III of the constitution; Relating to: requiring photographic identification to vote in any election (second consideration). Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SB265 Waiver of fees for admission to state parks on Earth Day. (FE) Under current law, vehicles entering state parks are required to display an annual or daily admission receipt, for which the Department of Natural Resources charges a fee. Under current law, DNR may waive these admission fees under certain circumstances. This bill requires DNR to waive any daily fee for admission to a state park on April 22 of each year in commemoration of Earth Day and its founder, Gaylord Nelson. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AJR55 Designating May as Mental Health Awareness Month in Wisconsin. Relating to: designating May as Mental Health Awareness Month in Wisconsin. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
AB267 Waiver of fees for admission to state parks on Earth Day. (FE) Under current law, vehicles entering state parks are required to display an annual or daily admission receipt, for which the Department of Natural Resources charges a fee. Under current law, DNR may waive these admission fees under certain circumstances. This bill requires DNR to waive any daily fee for admission to a state park on April 22 of each year in commemoration of Earth Day and its founder, Gaylord Nelson. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AJR45 Congratulating the Wauwatosa West Boys Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. Relating to: congratulating the Wauwatosa West Boys Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
AJR46 Congratulating the Wauwatosa East Girls Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. Relating to: congratulating the Wauwatosa East Girls Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SB11 Allowing representatives of certain federally chartered youth membership organizations to provide information to pupils on public school property. This bill requires, upon the request of certain federally chartered youth membership organizations, the principal of a public school, including an independent charter school, to schedule at least one date and time at the beginning of the school term for representatives of the youth membership organization to provide information about the organization to pupils during the school day on school property. Such information may include information about how the organization furthers the educational interests and civic involvement of pupils consistent with good citizenship. Examples of these federally chartered youth membership organizations are Boy Scouts of America and Girl Scouts of the United States of America. In Committee
SB83 Utilization management controls for antipsychotic prescription drugs under the Medical Assistance program. (FE) This bill prohibits the Department of Health Services from imposing any utilization management controls for prescription drugs under the Medical Assistance program that are approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration and are classified as antipsychotic. Utilization management controls are formal techniques used by a health carrier or prescription drug utilization management entity that are designed to evaluate prescription drug medical necessity, appropriateness, efficacy, or efficiency. Currently, DHS administers the Medical Assistance program, which is a joint federal and state program that provides health services to individuals who have limited financial resources. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB54 Utilization management controls for antipsychotic prescription drugs under the Medical Assistance program. (FE) This bill prohibits the Department of Health Services from imposing any utilization management controls for prescription drugs under the Medical Assistance program that are approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration and are classified as antipsychotic. Utilization management controls are formal techniques used by a health carrier or prescription drug utilization management entity that are designed to evaluate prescription drug medical necessity, appropriateness, efficacy, or efficiency. Currently, DHS administers the Medical Assistance program, which is a joint federal and state program that provides health services to individuals who have limited financial resources. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SJR26 Celebrating May 7, 2025, as Skilled Trades Day in Wisconsin. Relating to: celebrating May 7, 2025, as Skilled Trades Day in Wisconsin. In Committee
SJR43 Congratulating the Wauwatosa West Boys Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. Relating to: congratulating the Wauwatosa West Boys Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. In Committee
SJR44 Congratulating the Wauwatosa East Girls Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. Relating to: congratulating the Wauwatosa East Girls Basketball Team on their 2025 Division II State Basketball Championship. In Committee
SJR53 Designating May as Mental Health Awareness Month in Wisconsin. Relating to: designating May as Mental Health Awareness Month in Wisconsin. In Committee
SJR32 Designating the first full week in May as Tardive Dyskinesia Awareness Week. Relating to: designating the first full week in May as Tardive Dyskinesia Awareness Week. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
AJR49 Congratulating the Milwaukee Rufus King Cheer and Stunt Team on their double state championship win in 2025. Relating to: congratulating the Milwaukee Rufus King Cheer and Stunt Team on their double state championship win in 2025. Crossed Over
SB181 A levy limit exemption for regional emergency medical systems and eligibility for the expenditure restraint incentive program. (FE) Generally, under current law, local levy limits are applied to the property tax levies that are imposed by political subdivisions. A political subdivision may not increase its levy by a percentage that exceeds its Xvaluation factor,Y which is the greater of 0 percent or the percentage change in the political subdivision[s equalized value due to new construction, less improvements removed. Current law also contains a number of exceptions to the levy limit, such as amounts a county levies for a countywide emergency medical system, for a county children with disabilities education board, and for certain bridge and culvert construction and repair. This bill creates an additional exception to local levy limits. Under the bill, the amounts a city, village, town, or county levies for costs associated with regional emergency medical services, either through participation in a joint emergency services district or through one or more intergovernmental agreements to provide emergency medical services, or both, are exempt. Under the bill, XregionalY means consisting of a service area that is at least 232 square miles or includes at least eight municipalities. The bill also excludes expenditures of amounts levied for a regional emergency medical system that are exempt from local levy limits under the bill from being LRB-2497/1 KP:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 181 considered in determining eligibility for an expenditure restraint incentive program payment. Under current law, a municipality is eligible to receive an expenditure restraint incentive program payment if its property tax levy is greater than 5 mills and if the annual increase in its municipal budget, subject to certain exceptions, is less than the sum of factors based on inflation and the increased value of property in the municipality as a result of new construction. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB4 Agreements for direct primary care. This bill exempts valid direct primary care agreements from the application of insurance law. A “direct primary care agreement,” as defined in the bill, is a contract between a health care provider that provides primary care services under the provider’s scope of practice and an individual patient or the patient’s legal representative or employer in which the health care provider agrees to provide primary care services to the patient for an agreed-upon subscription fee and period of time. A valid direct primary care agreement is in writing and satisfies all of the following: 1. It is signed by the health care provider or an agent of the health care provider and the individual patient, the patient’s legal representative, or a representative of the patient’s employer. 2. It allows either party to terminate the agreement upon written notice. 3. It describes and quantifies the specific primary care services that are provided under the agreement. 4. It specifies the subscription fee for the agreement and specifies terms for termination of the agreement. 5. It specifies the duration of the agreement. LRB-0507/1 JPC:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 4 6. It prohibits the provider and patient from billing an insurer or any other third party on a fee-for-service basis for the primary care services included in the subscription fee under the agreement. 7. It prominently states, in writing, several provisions, including that the agreement is not health insurance and the agreement alone may not satisfy individual or employer insurance coverage requirements under federal law; that the patient is responsible for paying, or directing the patient’s employer to pay, the provider for all services that are not included in the subscription fee under the agreement; that the patient is encouraged to consult with a health insurance advisor, the patient’s health insurance carrier, or the patient’s employer-sponsored health plan, as applicable, before entering into the agreement; and that direct primary care fees might not be credited toward deductibles or out-of-pocket maximum amounts under any health insurance the patient has. Under the bill, a health care provider may not decline to enter into or terminate a direct primary care agreement with a patient solely because of the patient’s health status. The bill allows a health care provider to decline to accept a patient for a direct primary care agreement only if the health care provider’s practice has reached its maximum patient capacity or if the patient’s medical condition is such that the health care provider is unable to provide the appropriate level and type of primary care services the patient requires. A health care provider may terminate a direct primary care agreement with a patient only if the patient or the patient’s employer fails to pay the subscription fee, the patient fails repeatedly to adhere to the treatment plan, the patient has performed an act of fraud related to the direct primary care agreement, the patient is abusive in a manner described in the bill, the health care provider discontinues operation as a direct primary care provider, or the health care provider believes that the relationship is no longer therapeutic for the patient due to a dysfunctional relationship between the provider and the patient. Passed
SB31 State agency status for certain physician assistants and advanced practice nurses who provide services without compensation for local health departments or school districts. (FE) This bill provides that physician assistants and advanced practice nurse prescribers who are not employed by a local health department but who provide services without compensation for the programs and services provided by a local health department are, for the provision of those services, state agents of the Department of Health Services in certain circumstances for certain legal purposes and protections. For example, under the bill, if a physician assistant or certified advanced practice nurse prescriber who is considered a state agent of DHS is a defendant in any action or special proceeding because of acts they committed within the scope of their agency, any judgment as to damages and costs entered against them shall be paid by DHS. Further, this bill provides that physician assistants and advanced practice nurse prescribers may be selected by a school district or a local health department to supervise an immunization program and issue orders for the administration of LRB-1923/1 JPC:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 31 immunizations that are in accordance with written protocols issued by DHS. If the physician assistant or advanced practice nurse prescriber is not an employee of the school district or local health department, receives no compensation for his or her services as supervisor of the immunization program, and acts in accordance with written protocols issued by DHS, he or she is a state agent of DHS for the same legal purposes and protections as described above. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Passed
SB43 Allowing advanced practice nurse prescribers to pronounce the date, time, and place of a patient’s death for purposes of the preparation of death records. Under current law, any person who moves a corpse for the purpose of final disposition must file a death record for the corpse in a manner prescribed by the state registrar when the death occurred in this state, the corpse was found in this state, or certain other circumstances apply. For purposes of preparing the death record, certain health care providers may pronounce the date, time, and place of the death in certain circumstances, including naturopathic doctors and physician assistants. This bill allows advanced practice nurse prescribers who are directly involved with the care of a patient who dies to pronounce the date, time, and place of the patient[s death for purposes of preparation of the death record. Passed
SB35 Law enforcement and firefighter annuitants in the Wisconsin Retirement System who are rehired by a participating employer. (FE) Under current law, certain persons who receive a retirement or disability annuity from the Wisconsin Retirement System and who are hired by an employer that participates in the WRS must suspend that annuity and may not receive a WRS annuity payment until the employee is no longer in a WRS-covered position. This suspension applies to a person who 1) has reached his or her normal retirement date; 2) is appointed to a position with a WRS-participating employer or provides employee services to a WRS-participating employer; and 3) is expected to work at least two-thirds of what is considered full-time employment by the Department of Employee Trust Funds. This bill creates an exception to this suspension for an annuitant who retired from employment with a participating employer and who is subsequently rehired or provides employee services after retirement if 1) the annuitant is a retired law enforcement officer or firefighter; 2) at the time the annuitant initially retires from covered employment with a participating employer, the annuitant does not have an LRB-0063/1 MIM:wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 35 agreement with any participating employer to return to employment; and 3) the annuitant elects to not become a participating employee at the time the annuitant is rehired or enters into a contract after retirement. In other words, the bill allows an annuitant who was a law enforcement officer or firefighter to return to work with an employer that participates in the WRS and elect to not become a participating employee for purposes of the WRS but instead continue to receive an annuity from the WRS. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB43 Permitting pharmacists to prescribe certain contraceptives, extending the time limit for emergency rule procedures, providing an exemption from emergency rule procedures, granting rule-making authority, and providing a penalty. (FE) This bill permits a pharmacist to prescribe and dispense hormonal contraceptive patches and self-administered oral hormonal contraceptives, subject to limitations described as follows. The bill requires the Pharmacy Examining Board, after consultation with the Medical Examining Board, the Board of Nursing, and the Department of Health Services, to promulgate rules to establish standard procedures for the prescribing of contraceptives by pharmacists under the bill. The rules must require that pharmacists use a self-assessment questionnaire, developed in consideration of guidelines established by the American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, when prescribing a contraceptive. questionnaire must state and the patient must acknowledge on the self-assessment questionnaire that a hormonal contraceptive patch or a self-administered oral hormonal contraceptive is not protection against sexually transmitted diseases, and that it is strongly recommended that the patient annually meet with a physician or other medical professional to discuss the patient[s prescribed hormonal contraceptive treatment and other routine preventive care. Under the bill, the rules promulgated by the Pharmacy Examining Board establishing standard procedures for the prescribing of contraceptives by pharmacists must include certain requirements for pharmacists such as requiring that the pharmacist report to the patient[s primary health care practitioner following a prescription and requiring that the contraceptive be dispensed as soon as practicable after the pharmacist issues the prescription order. Further, the rules must prohibit a pharmacist from prescribing or dispensing a contraceptive to a patient unless the patient has responded to the self-assessment questionnaire and undergone a blood pressure screening and unless the use of the contraceptive is not contraindicated based upon the results of the questionnaire and screening. A pharmacist who prescribes contraceptives as permitted under the bill must comply with those rules, as well as any other rules promulgated by the Pharmacy Examining Board. A pharmacist may only prescribe a contraceptive to a person who is at least 18 years of age. The bill requires any pharmacist who prescribes hormonal contraceptives as provided in the bill to have in effect malpractice liability insurance coverage in the amounts specified for other health care providers under current law. Finally, the bill requires that DHS ensure any contraceptives or contraceptive services that are covered under the Medical Assistance program are covered and reimbursed when prescribed, if a prescription is required under federal law, or provided by a pharmacist acting within the scope of his or her practice. The Medical Assistance program is a joint federal and state program that provides health services to individuals who have limited financial resources. The bill also requires DHS to certify pharmacists as providers of Medical Assistance services for the purposes of covering and reimbursing prescribed hormonal contraceptive patches and self-administered oral hormonal contraceptives. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
SB42 Permitting pharmacists to prescribe certain contraceptives, extending the time limit for emergency rule procedures, providing an exemption from emergency rule procedures, granting rule-making authority, and providing a penalty. (FE) This bill permits a pharmacist to prescribe and dispense hormonal contraceptive patches and self-administered oral hormonal contraceptives, subject to limitations described as follows. The bill requires the Pharmacy Examining Board, after consultation with the Medical Examining Board, the Board of Nursing, and the Department of Health Services, to promulgate rules to establish standard procedures for the prescribing of contraceptives by pharmacists under the bill. The rules must require that pharmacists use a self-assessment questionnaire, developed in consideration of guidelines established by the American Congress of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, when prescribing a contraceptive. LRB-2068/1 JPC:cdc The self-assessment 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 42 questionnaire must state and the patient must acknowledge on the self-assessment questionnaire that a hormonal contraceptive patch or a self-administered oral hormonal contraceptive is not protection against sexually transmitted diseases, and that it is strongly recommended that the patient annually meet with a physician or other medical professional to discuss the patient[s prescribed hormonal contraceptive treatment and other routine preventive care. Under the bill, the rules promulgated by the Pharmacy Examining Board establishing standard procedures for the prescribing of contraceptives by pharmacists must include certain requirements for pharmacists such as requiring that the pharmacist report to the patient[s primary health care practitioner following a prescription and requiring that the contraceptive be dispensed as soon as practicable after the pharmacist issues the prescription order. Further, the rules must prohibit a pharmacist from prescribing or dispensing a contraceptive to a patient unless the patient has responded to the self-assessment questionnaire and undergone a blood pressure screening and unless the use of the contraceptive is not contraindicated based upon the results of the questionnaire and screening. A pharmacist who prescribes contraceptives as permitted under the bill must comply with those rules, as well as any other rules promulgated by the Pharmacy Examining Board. A pharmacist may only prescribe a contraceptive to a person who is at least 18 years of age. The bill requires any pharmacist who prescribes hormonal contraceptives as provided in the bill to have in effect malpractice liability insurance coverage in the amounts specified for other health care providers under current law. Finally, the bill requires that DHS ensure any contraceptives or contraceptive services that are covered under the Medical Assistance program are covered and reimbursed when prescribed, if a prescription is required under federal law, or provided by a pharmacist acting within the scope of his or her practice. The Medical Assistance program is a joint federal and state program that provides health services to individuals who have limited financial resources. The bill also requires DHS to certify pharmacists as providers of Medical Assistance services for the purposes of covering and reimbursing prescribed hormonal contraceptive patches and self-administered oral hormonal contraceptives. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB12 State agency status for certain physician assistants and advanced practice nurses who provide services without compensation for local health departments or school districts. (FE) This bill provides that physician assistants and advanced practice nurse prescribers who are not employed by a local health department but who provide services without compensation for the programs and services provided by a local health department are, for the provision of those services, state agents of the Department of Health Services in certain circumstances for certain legal purposes and protections. For example, under the bill, if a physician assistant or certified advanced practice nurse prescriber who is considered a state agent of DHS is a defendant in any action or special proceeding because of acts they committed within the scope of their agency, any judgment as to damages and costs entered against them shall be paid by DHS. Further, this bill provides that physician assistants and advanced practice nurse prescribers may be selected by a school district or a local health department to supervise an immunization program and issue orders for the administration of immunizations that are in accordance with written protocols issued by DHS. If the physician assistant or advanced practice nurse prescriber is not an employee of the school district or local health department, receives no compensation for his or her services as supervisor of the immunization program, and acts in accordance with written protocols issued by DHS, he or she is a state agent of DHS for the same legal purposes and protections as described above. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB44 Allowing advanced practice nurse prescribers to pronounce the date, time, and place of a patient’s death for purposes of the preparation of death records. Under current law, any person who moves a corpse for the purpose of final disposition must file a death record for the corpse in a manner prescribed by the state registrar when the death occurred in this state, the corpse was found in this state, or certain other circumstances apply. For purposes of preparing the death record, certain health care providers may pronounce the date, time, and place of the death in certain circumstances, including naturopathic doctors and physician assistants. This bill allows advanced practice nurse prescribers who are directly involved with the care of a patient who dies to pronounce the date, time, and place of the patient[s death for purposes of preparation of the death record. In Committee
AB8 Agreements for direct primary care. This bill exempts valid direct primary care agreements from the application of insurance law. A Xdirect primary care agreement,Y as defined in the bill, is a contract between a health care provider that provides primary care services under the provider[s scope of practice and an individual patient or the patient[s legal representative or employer in which the health care provider agrees to provide primary care services to the patient for an agreed-upon subscription fee and period of time. A valid direct primary care agreement is in writing and satisfies all of the following: 1. It is signed by the health care provider or an agent of the health care provider and the individual patient, the patient[s legal representative, or a representative of the patient[s employer. 2. It allows either party to terminate the agreement upon written notice. 3. It describes and quantifies the specific primary care services that are provided under the agreement. 4. It specifies the subscription fee for the agreement and specifies terms for termination of the agreement. 5. It specifies the duration of the agreement. 6. It prohibits the provider and patient from billing an insurer or any other third party on a fee-for-service basis for the primary care services included in the subscription fee under the agreement. 7. It prominently states, in writing, several provisions, including that the agreement is not health insurance and the agreement alone may not satisfy individual or employer insurance coverage requirements under federal law; that the patient is responsible for paying, or directing the patient[s employer to pay, the provider for all services that are not included in the subscription fee under the agreement; that the patient is encouraged to consult with a health insurance advisor, the patient[s health insurance carrier, or the patient[s employer-sponsored health plan, as applicable, before entering into the agreement; and that direct primary care fees might not be credited toward deductibles or out-of-pocket maximum amounts under any health insurance the patient has. Under the bill, a health care provider may not decline to enter into or terminate a direct primary care agreement with a patient solely because of the patient[s health status. The bill allows a health care provider to decline to accept a patient for a direct primary care agreement only if the health care provider[s practice has reached its maximum patient capacity or if the patient[s medical condition is such that the health care provider is unable to provide the appropriate level and type of primary care services the patient requires. The bill also provides that a health care provider may not decline to enter into a direct primary care agreement with a patient, terminate a direct primary care agreement with a patient, or otherwise discriminate against a patient in the provision of health care services under a direct primary care agreement on the basis of race, color, national origin, religious belief or affiliation, sex, disability, age, sexual orientation, or gender identity. A health care provider may terminate a direct primary care agreement with a patient only if the patient or the patient[s employer fails to pay the subscription fee, the patient fails repeatedly to adhere to the treatment plan, the patient has performed an act of fraud related to the direct primary care agreement, the patient is abusive in a manner described in the bill, the health care provider discontinues operation as a direct primary care provider, or the health care provider believes that the relationship is no longer therapeutic for the patient due to a dysfunctional relationship between the provider and the patient. In Committee
AB197 A levy limit exemption for regional emergency medical systems and eligibility for the expenditure restraint incentive program. (FE) Generally, under current law, local levy limits are applied to the property tax levies that are imposed by political subdivisions. A political subdivision may not increase its levy by a percentage that exceeds its Xvaluation factor,Y which is the greater of 0 percent or the percentage change in the political subdivision[s equalized value due to new construction, less improvements removed. Current law also contains a number of exceptions to the levy limit, such as amounts a county levies for a countywide emergency medical system, for a county children with disabilities education board, and for certain bridge and culvert construction and repair. This bill creates an additional exception to local levy limits. Under the bill, the amounts a city, village, town, or county levies for costs associated with regional emergency medical services, either through participation in a joint emergency services district or through one or more intergovernmental agreements to provide emergency medical services, or both, are exempt. Under the bill, XregionalY means consisting of a service area that is at least 232 square miles or includes at least eight municipalities. The bill also excludes expenditures of amounts levied for a regional emergency medical system that are exempt from local levy limits under the bill from being considered in determining eligibility for an expenditure restraint incentive program payment. Under current law, a municipality is eligible to receive an expenditure restraint incentive program payment if its property tax levy is greater than 5 mills and if the annual increase in its municipal budget, subject to certain exceptions, is less than the sum of factors based on inflation and the increased value of property in the municipality as a result of new construction. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB170 Rehired annuitants in the Wisconsin Retirement System. (FE) Under current law, certain people who receive a retirement or disability annuity from the Wisconsin Retirement System (WRS) and who are hired by an employer that participates in the WRS must suspend that annuity and may not receive a WRS annuity payment until they are no longer in a WRS-covered position. This suspension applies to an annuitant who 1) has reached his or her normal retirement date; 2) is appointed to a position with a WRS-participating employer; and 3) is expected to work at least two-thirds of what is considered full-time employment by the Department of Employee Trust Funds. This bill allows such an annuitant who is hired by a WRS-participating employer as an employee or to provide employee services to not suspend his or her annuity for up to 60 months. The bill also requires WRS-participating employers that hire such annuitants to make payments to ETF equal to what they would have paid as required contributions for each rehired annuitant if the rehired annuitant LRB-2369/1 MIM:wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 170 had suspended his or her annuity. Under the bill, these payments are deposited into the employer reserve account. If the annuitant does not suspend the annuity and does not become an active WRS-participating employee, in the case of state employment, the annuitant is not eligible for group insurance benefits provided to active WRS-participating employees and may not use any of his or her service in the new position for any WRS purposes. If the annuitant opts to again become an active WRS-participating employee, the annuitant is eligible for all group insurance benefits provided to other participating employees and may accumulate additional years of creditable service under the WRS for the new period of WRS-covered employment. The bill also repeals two obsolete provisions related to WRS annuitants returning to WRS-covered employment during the public health emergency declared on March 12, 2020, by executive order 72, which ended on May 13, 2020. Because this bill relates to public employee retirement or pensions, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Retirement Systems for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AJR32 Designating the first full week in May as Tardive Dyskinesia Awareness Week. Relating to: designating the first full week in May as Tardive Dyskinesia Awareness Week. In Committee
SJR50 Congratulating the Milwaukee Rufus King Cheer and Stunt Team on their double state championship win in 2025. Relating to: congratulating the Milwaukee Rufus King Cheer and Stunt Team on their double state championship win in 2025. In Committee
SB249 Vacancies in appointive state offices. Under current law, vacancies in public office may occur in a number of ways, including when the incumbent resigns, dies, or is removed from office, or, in the case of elected office, when the incumbent[s term expires. However, as the Wisconsin Supreme Court held in State ex rel. Kaul v. Prehn, 2022 WI 50, expiration of an incumbent[s term of office does not create a vacancy if the office is filled by appointment for a fixed term. Absent a vacancy or removal for cause, these incumbents may remain in office until their successors are appointed and qualified. Under this bill, a vacancy in public office is created if the office is an appointive state office for a fixed term and the incumbent[s term expires. In Committee
AB248 Vacancies in appointive state offices. Under current law, vacancies in public office may occur in a number of ways, including when the incumbent resigns, dies, or is removed from office, or, in the case of elected office, when the incumbent[s term expires. However, as the Wisconsin Supreme Court held in State ex rel. Kaul v. Prehn, 2022 WI 50, expiration of an incumbent[s term of office does not create a vacancy if the office is filled by appointment for a fixed term. Absent a vacancy or removal for cause, these incumbents may remain in office until their successors are appointed and qualified. Under this bill, a vacancy in public office is created if the office is an appointive state office for a fixed term and the incumbent[s term expires. In Committee
SB171 Requiring child sexual abuse prevention education. (FE) Beginning in the 2026-27 school year, this bill requires each school board to provide a child sexual abuse prevention instructional program to pupils in grades four-year-old kindergarten to 12. Under the bill, each school board must include various topics in its child sexual abuse prevention instructional program, including 1) age-appropriated facts about sexual abuse; 2) how to communicate incidents of sexual abuse to trustworthy adults; 3) how to set and respect personal boundaries; and 4) information about giving and receiving consent. Annually before offering the child sexual abuse prevention instructional program to a pupil, the bill requires that each school board provide a pupil[s parent or guardian with information related to the instructional program, including approximately when it will be provided to the pupil, an explanation of how to opt out of the instructional program, an outline of the instructional program for the pupil[s specific grade, and facts and clear explanations related to specific child sexual abuse topics. Lastly, under the bill, a pupil[s parent or guardian may opt the pupil out of the instructional program by filing a written request with the pupil[s teacher or principal. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-2531/1 FFK:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 171 In Committee
AB88 Civil action for injury or damages resulting from riot or vandalism, participation in a riot, prohibiting certain limitations or restrictions on law enforcement responses to riot or vandalism activity, and providing a penalty. This bill makes it a Class I felony to urge, promote, organize, encourage, or instigate others to commit a riot and a Class H felony to intentionally commit an act of violence while participating in a riot. The bill defines a XriotY as a public disturbance that involves an act of violence, as part of an assembly of at least three persons, that constitutes a clear and present danger of property damage or personal injury or a threat of an act of violence, as part of an assembly of at least three persons having the ability of immediate execution of the threat, if the threatened action constitutes a clear and present danger of property damage or personal injury. The bill establishes a civil cause of action for any person who suffers injury or loss to person or property as a result of conduct that violates the criminal prohibitions on vandalism or participation in a riot. The bill allows a person to bring a civil action against a person who committed the violation and against any person or organization that provided material support or resources with the intent that such support or resources would be used to perpetrate the offense. The person bringing the action may obtain an order requiring the offender to fix or repair the damage caused to the person[s property if certain requirements set forth in the bill are met. The bill also prohibits any government official with authority over any law enforcement agency or law enforcement officers from limiting or restricting the authority of the agency to have its officers, or certain officers, arrest or detain individuals involved in a riot or vandalism activity or take action to quell a riot or vandalism activity. The bill also prohibits any government official with authority over any law enforcement agency from limiting or restricting the authority of law enforcement officers, or certain designated law enforcement officers, to arrest or detain individuals involved in a riot or vandalism activity or to take action to quell a riot or vandalism activity. Finally, the bill provides that no government official, law enforcement agency, or law enforcement officer may discharge, demote, reassign, or take any punitive action against any employee because the employee made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing regarding a violation of the prohibitions on government officials set forth in the bill. Because this bill creates a new crime or revises a penalty for an existing crime, the Joint Review Committee on Criminal Penalties may be requested to prepare a report. In Committee
SB58 Referendum questions for certain referenda that affect property taxes. (FE) Under current law, a county, city, village, town, school district, or technical college district may exceed its property tax levy limit if the electors of that political subdivision or district approve the increase at a referendum. The ballot question must indicate the dollar amount of the increase in the levy limit. Under this bill, the ballot question must also provide a good faith estimate of the annual dollar amount difference in property taxes on a median-valued, single-family residence located in the political subdivision or district that would result from passage of the referendum. Also under current law, in certain cases when local governmental units authorize the issuance of bonds, the local governmental unit must adopt a resolution stating the purpose of the bonding and the maximum amounts of borrowing. The local governmental unit, in certain cases, is required or authorized to seek approval of the bonding authorization at a referendum. Among other things, the referendum question must contain a statement of the purpose for which LRB-1978/1 EVM:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 58 bonds are to be issued and the maximum amount of the bonds to be issued. Under the bill, the question must also provide all of the following: 1. The estimated interest rate and amount of the interest accruing on the bonds. 2. Any fees that will be incurred if the bonds are defeased. 3. A good faith estimate of the dollar amount difference in property taxes on a median-valued, single-family residence located in the local governmental unit that would result from passage of the referendum. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB169 Various changes to the unemployment insurance law. (FE) This bill makes various changes regarding the unemployment insurance (UI) law, which is administered by the Department of Workforce Development. Suitable work; work search Current law requires that, as a condition of being eligible for UI benefits for a given week, a claimant must 1) be able to work and available for work; 2) register for work in the manner prescribed by DWD; and 3) conduct a reasonable search for suitable work. Separately, current law also makes a claimant ineligible for UI benefits if a claimant fails, without good cause, to accept suitable work when offered. The bill provides that an employer may report to DWD whenever 1) an individual declines a job interview or job offer; 2) an individual fails to respond to a job interview offer or job offer; 3) an individual cancels or fails to attend a scheduled job interview without attempting to reschedule the job interview; 4) a UI claimant is unavailable for, or unable to perform, work actually available within a given week; or 5) under certain circumstances, the employer recalls a former employee receiving UI benefits who fails to return to work. The bill requires DWD to consider these reports in determining claimants[ attachment to the labor market. The bill also provides that a UI claimant is not considered to have conducted a reasonable search for suitable work in a given week, and is therefore ineligible for benefits for that week, if the claimant declined a job interview, failed to respond to a job interview offer, or canceled or failed to attend a job interview in that week. The bill, however, provides that a report of a canceled or missed interview is to be disregarded if the claimant demonstrates that he or she promptly attempted to reschedule the interview and allows reports to be disregarded upon certain showings by a claimant. The bill requires a claimant to provide weekly verification of all job offers, job interview offers, recalls to return to work, and any other offers of work received or responded to by the claimant since the prior week[s verification, as further prescribed by DWD, and requires DWD to investigate reports from employers as needed to determine their effect on claimants[ eligibility for benefits. A disqualification of a claimant from receiving benefits for a given week based upon the claimant[s failure to conduct a reasonable search for suitable work does not reduce the claimant[s total UI benefit entitlement and does not preclude the claimant from receiving UI benefits in subsequent weeks, if the claimant is otherwise eligible for those weeks. The bill requires DWD to include information on reports submitted by employers under the bill in its annual UI fraud report made to the Council on Unemployment Insurance, including actions taken by DWD in response to the reports and their effect on claimants[ eligibility for benefits. In addition, the bill requires that this annual fraud report be submitted to the appropriate standing committees of the legislature. The bill requires DWD to have in effect methods to address any circumstances in which a claimant for UI benefits fails to return to work or to accept suitable work without good cause or is unavailable for work or unable to work, including reporting methods for employers and a notice from DWD to claimants about the laws governing such circumstances. Recovery of overpayments Current law allows DWD to act to recover overpayments in certain circumstances and allows overpayments to be required to be repaid in cases where an individual makes misrepresentations to obtain benefits in the name of another person. This bill makes such recoveries mandatory, instead of permissive. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
SB196 Various changes to the unemployment insurance law. (FE) This bill makes various changes regarding the unemployment insurance (UI) law, which is administered by the Department of Workforce Development. Suitable work; work search Current law requires that, as a condition of being eligible for UI benefits for a given week, a claimant must 1) be able to work and available for work; 2) register for work in the manner prescribed by DWD; and 3) conduct a reasonable search for suitable work. Separately, current law also makes a claimant ineligible for UI benefits if a claimant fails, without good cause, to accept suitable work when offered. The bill provides that an employer may report to DWD whenever 1) an individual declines a job interview or job offer; 2) an individual fails to respond to a job interview offer or job offer; 3) an individual cancels or fails to attend a scheduled LRB-2743/1 MED:klm 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 196 job interview without attempting to reschedule the job interview; 4) a UI claimant is unavailable for, or unable to perform, work actually available within a given week; or 5) under certain circumstances, the employer recalls a former employee receiving UI benefits who fails to return to work. The bill requires DWD to consider these reports in determining claimants[ attachment to the labor market. The bill also provides that a UI claimant is not considered to have conducted a reasonable search for suitable work in a given week, and is therefore ineligible for benefits for that week, if the claimant declined a job interview, failed to respond to a job interview offer, or canceled or failed to attend a job interview in that week. The bill, however, provides that a report of a canceled or missed interview is to be disregarded if the claimant demonstrates that he or she promptly attempted to reschedule the interview and allows reports to be disregarded upon certain showings by a claimant. The bill requires a claimant to provide weekly verification of all job offers, job interview offers, recalls to return to work, and any other offers of work received or responded to by the claimant since the prior week[s verification, as further prescribed by DWD, and requires DWD to investigate reports from employers as needed to determine their effect on claimants[ eligibility for benefits. A disqualification of a claimant from receiving benefits for a given week based upon the claimant[s failure to conduct a reasonable search for suitable work does not reduce the claimant[s total UI benefit entitlement and does not preclude the claimant from receiving UI benefits in subsequent weeks, if the claimant is otherwise eligible for those weeks. The bill requires DWD to include information on reports submitted by employers under the bill in its annual UI fraud report made to the Council on Unemployment Insurance, including actions taken by DWD in response to the reports and their effect on claimants[ eligibility for benefits. In addition, the bill requires that this annual fraud report be submitted to the appropriate standing committees of the legislature. The bill requires DWD to have in effect methods to address any circumstances in which a claimant for UI benefits fails to return to work or to accept suitable work without good cause or is unavailable for work or unable to work, including reporting methods for employers and a notice from DWD to claimants about the laws governing such circumstances. Recovery of overpayments Current law allows DWD to act to recover overpayments in certain circumstances and allows overpayments to be required to be repaid in cases where an individual makes misrepresentations to obtain benefits in the name of another person. This bill makes such recoveries mandatory, instead of permissive. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-2743/1 MED:klm 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 196 In Committee
SB205 Information provided to voters concerning proposed constitutional amendments and other statewide referenda. (FE) Current law requires that each proposed constitutional amendment, contingent referendum, advisory referendum, or other proposal requiring a statewide referendum that is passed by the legislature include a complete statement of the ballot question to be voted on at the referendum. The ballot question may not be worded in such a manner as to require a negative vote to approve a proposition or an affirmative vote to disapprove a proposition. Also under current law, the attorney general must prepare an explanatory statement for each proposed constitutional amendment or other statewide referendum describing the effect of either a XyesY or XnoY vote on each ballot question. This bill eliminates the requirement that the attorney general prepare such an explanatory statement. Instead, the bill requires that each proposal for a constitutional amendment or other statewide referendum that passes both houses of the legislature contain a complete state referendum disclosure notice that includes all of the following: 1. The date of the referendum. LRB-2640/1 MPG:wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 205 2. The entire text of the ballot question and proposed constitutional amendment or enactment, if any. 3. To the extent applicable, a plain language summary of current law. 4. An explanation in plain language of the effect of the proposed constitutional amendment or other statewide referendum. 5. An explanation in plain language of the effect of a XyesY vote and the effect of a XnoY vote. Under the bill, the content under items 3 to 5 combined may not exceed one page on paper not less than 8 1/2 inches by 11 inches and printed in at least 12- point font. Under the bill, the complete state referendum disclosure notice agreed to by both houses of the legislature must be included in the type C notice entitled XNotice of ReferendumY that each county clerk must provide prior to any referendum. Current law requires that the text of the type C notice be posted at polling places on election day in such a manner as to be readily observed by voters entering the polling place or waiting in line to vote. As such, the complete state referendum disclosure notice must be so posted at the polls on election day. Additionally, for at least 30 days prior to the date of a statewide referendum, the complete state referendum disclosure notice must be published by the Elections Commission on the website used for voter registration, currently titled MyVote Wisconsin, or other voter public access website maintained by the commission and must be posted by each county clerk at the county clerk[s office and published by the county clerk on the county clerk[s website. Finally, the notice must be included with absentee ballots provided to voters for voting in a statewide referendum. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB229 The law enforcement officers’ bill of rights. Current law contains a law enforcement officers[ bill of rights that protects certain law enforcement officers[ rights relating to their engagement or lack of engagement in political activity, the manner in which they may be subject to interrogation, and their candidacy for public office and provides that a law enforcement officer may not be discharged; disciplined; demoted or denied promotion, transfer, or reassignment; or otherwise discriminated against in regard to employment for exercising such rights. Under current law, this bill of rights applies only to law enforcement officers employed by a city, village, town, or county. This bill applies the law enforcement officers[ bill of rights to any person employed by the state or by a city, village, town, or county for the purpose of detecting and preventing crime and enforcing laws or ordinances, who is authorized to make arrests for violations of the laws or ordinances that he or she is employed to enforce. In Committee
AJR43 Congratulating the University of Wisconsin–La Crosse women’s gymnastics team on winning the 2025 National Collegiate Gymnastics Association Championship. Relating to: congratulating the University of Wisconsin]La Crosse women[s gymnastics team on winning the 2025 National Collegiate Gymnastics Association Championship. In Committee
SB154 Requiring the Department of Health Services to seek any necessary waiver to prohibit the purchase of candy or soft drinks with FoodShare benefits. (FE) This bill requires the Department of Health Services to request any necessary waiver from the U.S. Department of Agriculture to prohibit the purchase of candy or soft drinks with FoodShare benefits. Under current law, the federal food stamp program, known as the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program and called FoodShare in this state, provides benefits to eligible low-income households for the purchase of food. FoodShare is administered by DHS. The federal government pays the benefits for FoodShare while the state and federal government share the cost of administration. Current federal law defines the foods eligible for purchase under FoodShare. The bill requires DHS to seek any necessary waiver to prohibit the use of FoodShare benefits for the purchase of candy or soft drinks. If the waiver is granted, DHS must prohibit the use of FoodShare benefits to purchase candy or soft drinks. If any necessary waiver is not granted, the bill requires DHS to resubmit the waiver request annually until it is granted. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-2415/1 SWB:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 154 In Committee
SB119 Positions for the Office of School Safety. (FE) Under current law, there is an Office of School Safety in the Department of Justice. The office has 14.2 project positions that will expire on October 1, 2025; the purpose of these positions is to support and enhance school safety initiatives. Under current law, the positions are funded by fees that DOJ receives for performing background checks for handgun sales and for issuing licenses to carry a concealed weapon. This bill creates the positions as permanent positions and funds them with general purpose revenue beginning on October 1, 2025, when the project positions expire. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB120 Positions for the Office of School Safety. (FE) Under current law, there is an Office of School Safety in the Department of Justice. The office has 14.2 project positions that will expire on October 1, 2025; the purpose of these positions is to support and enhance school safety initiatives. Under current law, the positions are funded by fees that DOJ receives for performing background checks for handgun sales and for issuing licenses to carry a concealed weapon. This bill creates the positions as permanent positions and funds them with general purpose revenue beginning on October 1, 2025, when the project positions expire. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB128 Requiring first responders to be trained to administer epinephrine delivery systems. (FE) This bill requires first responders to be trained in how to recognize signs and symptoms of severe allergic reactions, standards and procedures for the storage and administration of an epinephrine delivery system, and emergency follow-up procedures after an epinephrine delivery system is administered and requires first responders to have an epinephrine delivery system available to the first responder for use at all times while on duty. First responders include conservation wardens, correctional officers, emergency medical responders, emergency medical services practitioners, firefighters, and law enforcement officers. The Department of Health Services is required to identify organizations that conduct trainings that cover all the subjects that first responders are required to be trained in under the bill. Finally, the bill allows DHS to distribute epinephrine delivery systems to first responders who are trained in all subjects described under the bill or to employers of first responders who are trained in all subjects described under the bill to be used by those first responders. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB156 Requiring first responders to be trained to administer epinephrine delivery systems. (FE) This bill requires first responders to be trained in how to recognize signs and symptoms of severe allergic reactions, standards and procedures for the storage and administration of an epinephrine delivery system, and emergency follow-up procedures after an epinephrine delivery system is administered and requires first responders to have an epinephrine delivery system available to the first responder for use at all times while on duty. First responders include conservation wardens, correctional officers, emergency medical responders, emergency medical services practitioners, firefighters, and law enforcement officers. The Department of Health Services is required to identify organizations that conduct trainings that cover all the subjects that first responders are required to be trained in under the bill. Finally, the bill allows DHS to distribute epinephrine delivery systems to first responders who are trained in all subjects described under the bill or to employers of first responders who are trained in all subjects described under the bill to be used by those first responders. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-1317/1 JPC:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 156 In Committee
AJR23 Designating April 2025 and April 2026 as Parkinson’s Disease Awareness Months. Relating to: designating April 2025 and April 2026 as Parkinson[s Disease Awareness Months. In Committee
AJR25 Proclaiming April 24, 2025, to be Holocaust Remembrance Day and April 27, 2025, to May 4, 2025, as Holocaust Days of Remembrance in Wisconsin. Relating to: proclaiming April 24, 2025, to be Holocaust Remembrance Day and April 27, 2025, to May 4, 2025, as Holocaust Days of Remembrance in Wisconsin. In Committee
SB227 The law enforcement officers’ bill of rights. Current law contains a law enforcement officers[ bill of rights that protects certain law enforcement officers[ rights relating to their engagement or lack of engagement in political activity, the manner in which they may be subject to interrogation, and their candidacy for public office and provides that a law enforcement officer may not be discharged; disciplined; demoted or denied promotion, transfer, or reassignment; or otherwise discriminated against in regard to employment for exercising such rights. Under current law, this bill of rights applies only to law enforcement officers employed by a city, village, town, or county. This bill applies the law enforcement officers[ bill of rights to any person employed by the state or by a city, village, town, or county for the purpose of detecting and preventing crime and enforcing laws or ordinances, who is authorized to make arrests for violations of the laws or ordinances that he or she is employed to enforce. In Committee
SB221 All-terrain vehicles and utility terrain vehicles with out-of-state registrations. This bill provides that a vehicle with out-of-state registration that meets this state[s definition of an all-terrain vehicle (ATV) or utility terrain vehicle (UTV) is an ATV or UTV, regardless of the vehicle type specified on the out-of-state registration, and is subject to legal requirements applicable to ATVs and UTVs. A vehicle with out-of-state registration that does not meet this state[s definition of an ATV or UTV is not an ATV or UTV and is not eligible for public operation on ATV trails or routes as an ATV or UTV. The bill modifies the definition of Xpublic all-terrain vehicle corridorY to include ATV routes and Xhybrid trails,Y which are combination ATV routes and trails. The bill also modifies the definition of Xvehicle,Y as that term is defined for purposes related to motor vehicle regulation, to provide that a UTV is not a vehicle, Xexcept for purposes made specifically applicable by statute.Y In Committee
SJR28 Reaffirming Wisconsin’s commitment to the strengthening and deepening of the sister ties between the State of Wisconsin and Taiwan; reaffirming Wisconsin’s support for the Taiwan Relations Act; supporting Taiwan’s signing of a Bilateral Trade Agreement with the United States; and continuing support for increasing Taiwan’s international profile. Relating to: reaffirming Wisconsin[s commitment to the strengthening and deepening of the sister ties between the State of Wisconsin and Taiwan; reaffirming Wisconsin[s support for the Taiwan Relations Act; supporting Taiwan[s signing of a Bilateral Trade Agreement with the United States; and continuing support for increasing Taiwan[s international profile. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SJR29 Designating April 2025 and April 2026 as Parkinson’s Disease Awareness Months. Relating to: designating April 2025 and April 2026 as Parkinson[s Disease Awareness Months. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SJR27 Proclaiming April 24, 2025, to be Holocaust Remembrance Day and April 27, 2025, to May 4, 2025, as Holocaust Days of Remembrance in Wisconsin. Relating to: proclaiming April 24, 2025, to be Holocaust Remembrance Day and April 27, 2025, to May 4, 2025, as Holocaust Days of Remembrance in Wisconsin. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SJR23 Proclaiming the week of April 28 to May 2, 2025, as School Nutrition Professionals Appreciation Week. Relating to: proclaiming the week of April 28 to May 2, 2025, as School Nutrition Professionals Appreciation Week. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SB165 Eliminating daylight saving time in Wisconsin. This bill eliminates daylight saving time. Current law defines standard time and provides that daylight saving time begins at 2 a.m. on the second Sunday in March and ends at 2 a.m. on the first Sunday in November of each year. Federal law generally preempts states from deviating from standard time or eliminating daylight saving time, but federal law allows a state that lies entirely in one timezone, such as Wisconsin, to observe standard time instead of daylight saving time as long as the observation is throughout the entire state. In Committee
AB160 Eliminating daylight saving time in Wisconsin. This bill eliminates daylight saving time. Current law defines standard time and provides that daylight saving time begins at 2 a.m. on the second Sunday in March and ends at 2 a.m. on the first Sunday in November of each year. Federal law generally preempts states from deviating from standard time or eliminating daylight saving time, but federal law allows a state that lies entirely in one timezone, such as Wisconsin, to observe standard time instead of daylight saving time as long as the observation is throughout the entire state. In Committee
AB135 The right to repair motor vehicles and providing a penalty. (FE) This bill prohibits motor vehicle manufacturers from employing certain barriers that impair the ability of the motor vehicle owners and the persons that repair motor vehicles from accessing motor vehicles[ vehicle-generated data, critical repair information, or tools in order to repair the motor vehicles; that affect motor vehicle owners[ ability to use a vehicle towing provider or service provider of their choice; or that affect motor vehicle owners[ abilities to diagnose, repair, and maintain their vehicle in the same manner as would the motor vehicle manufacturer. The bill also prohibits motor vehicle manufacturers from employing certain barriers that affect the ability of aftermarket parts manufacturers, aftermarket parts remanufacturers, motor vehicle equipment manufacturers, motor vehicle repair facilities, distributors, or service providers to produce or offer compatible aftermarket parts. Additionally, the bill requires motor vehicle manufacturers to provide to motor vehicle owners and certain other entities access to certain data and tools related to the repair of the motor vehicles it manufactures. The bill also prohibits motor vehicle manufacturers from making certain mandates in regards to what parts, tools, or equipment must be used on its vehicles. A manufacturer that violates a provision of the bill is subject to a forfeiture of $10,000 per violation. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB30 Prohibiting a foreign adversary from acquiring agricultural or forestry land in this state. This bill generally prohibits a foreign adversary from acquiring agricultural or forestry land in this state. In the bill, Xforeign adversaryY means a foreign government or nongovernment person determined by the federal secretary of commerce to have engaged in a long-term pattern or serious instances of conduct significantly adverse to the national security of the United States or security and safety of U.S. persons. Current law generally prohibits a nonresident alien or a corporation that is not created under federal law or the laws of any state (foreign person) from acquiring, owning, or holding more than 640 acres of land in this state. However, that prohibition does not apply to any of the following activities: 1. An exploration mining lease and land used for certain mining and associated activities. 2. Certain manufacturing activities. 3. Certain mercantile activities. 4. A lease for exploration or production of oil, gas, coal, shale, and related hydrocarbons, including by-products of the production, and land used in connection with the exploration or production. Those exceptions have been interpreted to be Xextremely broad, embracing almost every conceivable business activity [other than a]ctivities relating to agriculture and forestry.Y See Opinion of Wis. Att[y Gen., OAG 11-14, ?5, available at https://www.doj.state.wi.us. In other words, under current law, a foreign person may acquire, own, and hold unlimited amounts of land for most nonagricultural and nonforestry purposes, but a foreign person may not acquire, own, or hold more than 640 acres of land for agricultural or forestry purposes. The bill retains the current law restriction on foreign person ownership of agricultural and forestry land and adds a provision that prohibits a foreign adversary from acquiring any land for agricultural or forestry purposes. In Committee
AJR17 Proclaiming the week of April 14, 2025, as Two Lights for Tomorrow Week in the state of Wisconsin. Relating to: proclaiming the week of April 14, 2025, as Two Lights for Tomorrow Week in the state of Wisconsin. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SJR14 Honoring the life and public service of Representative David O. Martin. Relating to: honoring the life and public service of Representative David O. Martin. In Committee
AJR20 Proclaiming the week of April 28 to May 2, 2025, as School Nutrition Professionals Appreciation Week. Relating to: proclaiming the week of April 28 to May 2, 2025, as School Nutrition Professionals Appreciation Week. In Committee
SJR25 Commending the IBS Patient Support Group on its recognition of April 17 through April 19, 2025, as World IBS Days. Relating to: commending the IBS Patient Support Group on its recognition of April 17 through April 19, 2025, as World IBS Days. In Committee
SB211 Exempting tobacco bars from the public smoking ban. This bill exempts tobacco bars from the general prohibition under current law against smoking in indoor locations if the tobacco bar satisfies all of the following: 1) the tobacco bar came into existence on or after June 4, 2009; 2) only the smoking of cigars and pipes is allowed in the tobacco bar; and 3) the tobacco bar is not a retail food establishment. Current law defines a Xtobacco barY as a tavern that generates 15 percent or more of its annual gross income from the sale on the tavern premises, other than from a vending machine, of cigars and pipe tobacco. Also, under current law, tobacco bars that existed on June 3, 2009, are exempt from the general prohibition against smoking in indoor locations. In Committee
AJR30 Congratulating the University of Wisconsin–Madison women’s hockey team on winning the 2025 NCAA Division I Women’s Hockey National Championship. Relating to: congratulating the University of Wisconsin]Madison women[s hockey team on winning the 2025 NCAA Division I Women[s Hockey National Championship. In Committee
AB221 All-terrain vehicles and utility terrain vehicles with out-of-state registrations. This bill provides that a vehicle with out-of-state registration that meets this state[s definition of an all-terrain vehicle (ATV) or utility terrain vehicle (UTV) is an ATV or UTV, regardless of the vehicle type specified on the out-of-state registration, and is subject to legal requirements applicable to ATVs and UTVs. A vehicle with out-of-state registration that does not meet this state[s definition of an ATV or UTV is not an ATV or UTV and is not eligible for public operation on ATV trails or routes as an ATV or UTV. The bill modifies the definition of Xpublic all-terrain vehicle corridorY to include ATV routes and Xhybrid trails,Y which are combination ATV routes and trails. The bill also modifies the definition of Xvehicle,Y as that term is defined for purposes related to motor vehicle regulation, to provide that a UTV is not a vehicle, Xexcept for purposes made specifically applicable by statute.Y In Committee
AJR28 Commending the IBS Patient Support Group on its recognition of April 17 through April 19, 2025, as World IBS Days. Relating to: commending the IBS Patient Support Group on its recognition of April 17 through April 19, 2025, as World IBS Days. In Committee
AJR24 Reaffirming Wisconsin’s commitment to the strengthening and deepening of the sister ties between the State of Wisconsin and Taiwan; reaffirming Wisconsin’s support for the Taiwan Relations Act; supporting Taiwan’s signing of a Bilateral Trade Agreement with the United States; and continuing support for increasing Taiwan’s international profile. Relating to: reaffirming Wisconsin[s commitment to the strengthening and deepening of the sister ties between the State of Wisconsin and Taiwan; reaffirming Wisconsin[s support for the Taiwan Relations Act; supporting Taiwan[s signing of a Bilateral Trade Agreement with the United States; and continuing support for increasing Taiwan[s international profile. In Committee
SJR18 Proclaiming the week of April 14, 2025, as Two Lights for Tomorrow Week in the state of Wisconsin. Relating to: proclaiming the week of April 14, 2025, as Two Lights for Tomorrow Week in the state of Wisconsin. In Committee
SB129 The right to repair motor vehicles and providing a penalty. (FE) This bill prohibits motor vehicle manufacturers from employing certain barriers that impair the ability of the motor vehicle owners and the persons that repair motor vehicles from accessing motor vehicles[ vehicle-generated data, critical repair information, or tools in order to repair the motor vehicles; that affect motor vehicle owners[ ability to use a vehicle towing provider or service provider of their choice; or that affect motor vehicle owners[ abilities to diagnose, repair, and maintain their vehicle in the same manner as would the motor vehicle manufacturer. The bill also prohibits motor vehicle manufacturers from employing certain barriers that affect the ability of aftermarket parts manufacturers, aftermarket parts remanufacturers, motor vehicle equipment manufacturers, motor vehicle repair facilities, distributors, or service providers to produce or offer compatible aftermarket parts. Additionally, the bill requires motor vehicle manufacturers to provide to motor vehicle owners and certain other entities access to certain data and tools related to the repair of the motor vehicles it manufactures. The bill also prohibits motor vehicle manufacturers from making certain mandates in regards to what parts, tools, or equipment must be used on its vehicles. A manufacturer that violates a provision of the bill is subject to a forfeiture of $10,000 per violation. LRB-2114/1 JAM:skw&wlj 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 129 For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB92 Theft crimes and providing a penalty. (FE) Under current law, the penalty for the crime of property theft varies by the value of the property taken. The penalty ranges from a Class A misdemeanor if the value of the property is not more than $2,500 to a Class F felony if the value of the property exceeds $100,000. Similarly, the penalty for the crime of retail theft varies by the value of the merchandise or service that is taken. The penalty ranges from a Class A misdemeanor if the value is not more than $500 to a Class G felony if the value exceeds $10,000. This bill specifies that, if, in a six-month period, a defendant commits more than one violation of property theft or more than one violation of retail theft, the value of items taken at each violation may be aggregated and the crimes may be prosecuted as one property theft crime or one retail theft crime. The penalty for the crime would be determined by the aggregated value of the items taken. Because this bill creates a new crime or revises a penalty for an existing crime, the Joint Review Committee on Criminal Penalties may be requested to prepare a report. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. LRB-2282/1 CMH:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 92 In Committee
AB39 Requiring state employees to perform their work at the offices of their employer. Under this bill, state agencies must require employees to perform their work in person at state agency offices during the employee[s regularly scheduled work hours, beginning July 1, 2025. The bill exempts telehealth services and duties that were performed off site before March 1, 2020. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB29 Requiring school boards to adopt policies to prohibit the use of wireless communication devices during instructional time. This bill requires each school board to adopt, by July 1, 2026, a policy that generally prohibits pupils from using wireless communication devices during instructional time. For purposes of these policies, the bill requires each school board to define a Xwireless communication deviceY as a portable wireless device that is capable of providing voice, messaging, or other data communication between two or more parties. The bill expressly states that this definition must include cellular phones, tablet computers, laptop computers, and gaming devices. Finally, under the bill, each school board must include in its wireless communication device policy exceptions to the general prohibition against using wireless communication devices during instructional time 1) for emergencies and perceived threats, 2) to manage a pupil[s health care, 3) for a use included in an individualized education program or 504 plan, and 4) for a use authorized by a teacher for educational purposes. The bill also authorizes a school board to include other exceptions if the school board determines that doing so is beneficial for pupil education or well-being. LRB-1382/1 FFK:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 29 In Committee
AB2 Requiring school boards to adopt policies to prohibit the use of wireless communication devices during instructional time. This bill requires each school board to adopt, by July 1, 2026, a policy that generally prohibits pupils from using wireless communication devices during instructional time. For purposes of these policies, the bill requires each school board to define a “wireless communication device” as a portable wireless device that is capable of providing voice, messaging, or other data communication between two or more parties. The bill expressly states that this definition must include cellular phones, tablet computers, laptop computers, and gaming devices. Finally, under the bill, each school board must include in its wireless communication device policy exceptions to the general prohibition against using wireless communication devices during instructional time 1) for emergencies and perceived threats, 2) to manage a pupil’s health care, 3) for a use included in an individualized education program or 504 plan, and 4) for a use authorized by a teacher for educational purposes. The bill also authorizes a school board to include other exceptions if the school board determines that doing so is beneficial for pupil education or well-being. Crossed Over
AB1 Changes to the educational assessment program and the school and school district accountability report. (FE) Under current law, the Department of Public Instruction is required to annually publish a school and school district accountability report, commonly known as school and school district report cards, for the previous school year. To measure school performance and school district improvement for purposes of the report cards, particularly measures related to pupil achievement in reading and math, DPI uses data derived from pupil performance on assessments administered in the previous school year, including assessments commonly referred to as the Wisconsin Student Assessment System, which includes the Wisconsin Forward Exam, PreACT, the ACT with Writing, and Dynamic Learning Maps. Under the bill, beginning with report cards published for the school year in which the bill becomes law, for the index system to identify school and school district performance and improvement, also known as the accountability rating categories, DPI must use the same cut scores, score ranges, and corresponding qualitative descriptions that DPI used for report cards published in the 2019-20 school year. In addition, beginning with the WSAS administered in the school year in which the bill becomes law, DPI must do the following: 1. For the Wisconsin Forward exam in English Language Arts and Mathematics, align cut scores, score ranges, and pupil performance categories to the cut scores, score ranges, and pupil performance categories set by the National Assessment of Educational Progress. 2. For the PreACT and ACT with Writing in English, Reading, and Mathematics, use the same cut scores, score ranges, and pupil performance categories that DPI used for the same assessments administered in the 2021-22 school year. The bill specifically requires DPI to use the terms “below basic,” “basic,” “proficient,” and “advanced” for pupil performance categories on these assessments. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Vetoed
AB46 Flags flown at state and local government buildings and eliminating a related administrative rule. This bill prohibits any flag other than the U.S. flag, the state flag, the official POW/MIA flag recognized by Congress, and the official flags of each branch of the U.S. armed forces from being flown, hung, or displayed from any flagpole or building, structure, or facility, including the state capitol, that is owned or occupied entirely by a state agency or authority or by a city, village, town, or county. However, the bill authorizes the legislature to make exceptions for state flagpoles and facilities by joint resolution adopted by a three-fourths majority vote of all members elected to each house. Similarly, a city, village, town, or county may make exceptions for its flagpoles and facilities by a three-fourths majority vote of all members elected to its governing body. The bill also repeals an administrative rule that includes requirements similar to those of the bill but that authorizes the governor to make exceptions. The bill delays its requirements for state flagpoles and facilities until January 1, 2027. In Committee
SB51 Flags flown at state and local government buildings and eliminating a related administrative rule. This bill prohibits any flag other than the U.S. flag, the state flag, the official POW/MIA flag recognized by Congress, and the official flags of each branch of the U.S. armed forces from being flown, hung, or displayed from any flagpole or building, structure, or facility, including the state capitol, that is owned or occupied entirely by a state agency or authority or by a city, village, town, or county. However, the bill authorizes the legislature to make exceptions for state flagpoles and facilities by joint resolution adopted by a three-fourths majority vote of all members elected to each house. Similarly, a city, village, town, or county may make exceptions for its flagpoles and facilities by a three-fourths majority vote of all members elected to its governing body. The bill also repeals an administrative rule that includes requirements similar to those of the bill but that authorizes the governor to make exceptions. The bill delays its requirements for state flagpoles and facilities until January 1, 2027. LRB-1545/1 MPG:emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 51 In Committee
SB27 Requiring state employees to perform their work at the offices of their employer. (FE) Under this bill, state agencies must require employees to perform their work in person at state agency offices during the employee[s regularly scheduled work hours, beginning July 1, 2025. The bill exempts telehealth services and duties that were performed off site before March 1, 2020. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB70 A minor’s authority to consent to health care. This bill allows a minor who is an unaccompanied youth to consent to, contract for, and receive medically necessary care without a parent[s or guardian[s permission, authority, or consent under certain circumstances. The bill defines Xunaccompanied youthY as the term is defined under federal law, which is a homeless youth not in the physical custody of a parent or guardian. The bill defines Xmedically necessary careY as a medical service that is required to prevent, identify, or treat a recipient[s illness, injury, or disability and that meets a set of standards specified in the bill. Under the bill, in order to consent to health care, such a minor must be at least 14 years of age and must not be under the supervision of a county department of human services or social services, a licensed child welfare agency, the Department of Children and Families, or the Department of Corrections. Also under the bill, one of the following must confirm in writing that the minor is an unaccompanied youth: a local educational agency liaison for homeless children and youths designated under federal law, a school social worker or counselor, an employee who conducts intake at a shelter facility or transitional living program where the minor has been admitted as an unaccompanied youth under current law, or the director, or his or her designee, of a governmental or nonprofit entity that receives public or LRB-0487/1 EHS:cdc 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 70 private funding to provide services to individuals who are homeless or to unaccompanied youth. Under the bill, a professional who provides medically necessary care to a minor based on the minor[s consent given in conformity with the bill may not be held liable in a civil or criminal action for providing those services without having obtained permission from the minor[s parent or guardian. In Committee
AB49 A minor’s authority to consent to health care. This bill allows a minor who is an unaccompanied youth to consent to, contract for, and receive medically necessary care without a parent[s or guardian[s permission, authority, or consent under certain circumstances. The bill defines Xunaccompanied youthY as the term is defined under federal law, which is a homeless youth not in the physical custody of a parent or guardian. The bill defines Xmedically necessary careY as a medical service that is required to prevent, identify, or treat a recipient[s illness, injury, or disability and that meets a set of standards specified in the bill. Under the bill, in order to consent to health care, such a minor must be at least 14 years of age and must not be under the supervision of a county department of human services or social services, a licensed child welfare agency, the Department of Children and Families, or the Department of Corrections. Also under the bill, one of the following must confirm in writing that the minor is an unaccompanied youth: a local educational agency liaison for homeless children and youths designated under federal law, a school social worker or counselor, an employee who conducts intake at a shelter facility or transitional living program where the minor has been admitted as an unaccompanied youth under current law, or the director, or his or her designee, of a governmental or nonprofit entity that receives public or private funding to provide services to individuals who are homeless or to unaccompanied youth. Under the bill, a professional who provides medically necessary care to a minor based on the minor[s consent given in conformity with the bill may not be held liable in a civil or criminal action for providing those services without having obtained permission from the minor[s parent or guardian. In Committee
SJR6 Honoring the life and enduring legacy of Robert George Uecker. Relating to: honoring the life and enduring legacy of Robert George Uecker. Signed/Enacted/Adopted
SB139 Transfer of nursing home beds. Under current law, the Department of Health Services licenses nursing home beds and beds in facilities primarily serving the developmentally disabled and enforces a maximum limit on the number of these licensed beds in the state. A nursing home may transfer a licensed bed to another nursing home under certain circumstances, including that the receiving nursing home is within the same area for allocation of nursing home beds as is the transferring home, or is in a county adjoining that area, that the transferring nursing home and the receiving nursing home are owned by corporations that are owned by the same person, and that DHS reviews and approves the transfer. This bill repeals the transfer of nursing home beds. Instead, closed nursing home beds will be made available for distribution under procedures specified under current law. Under current law, DHS is required to redistribute nursing home beds within a county if the number of other nursing home beds for each 1,000 persons 65 years of age or over in the county is less than 80 percent of the statewide average and the total occupancy level for the other nursing homes in the county is equal to or more than the statewide average nursing home occupancy rate. Further, DHS must publish a notice at least once per year describing the number of beds that are available in each health planning area of the state. Nursing homes may then apply LRB-0506/1 JPC:cjs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 139 for any available beds. DHS is responsible for reviewing each application it receives and making decisions on each application using criteria specified by statute and any further criteria that DHS develops by rule. In Committee
AJR9 Honoring the life and enduring legacy of Robert George Uecker. Relating to: honoring the life and enduring legacy of Robert George Uecker. In Committee
AB42 Local regulation of fowl. This bill prohibits political subdivisions and sewerage districts from prohibiting the keeping of up to four chickens or quail (fowl) by property owners or certain lessors on properties zoned for residential use. The bill specifically allows political subdivisions and sewerage districts to do any of the following with regard to the keeping of fowl: 1. Require a keeper of fowl to obtain a permit. 2. Require notification of adjoining land owners. 3. Impose reasonable regulations related to the location of fowl housing on a property. 4. Prohibit the keeping of roosters. 5. Impose reasonable cleanliness standards. In Committee
SJR19 Honoring the life and public service of Representative Jonathan Brostoff. Relating to: honoring the life and public service of Representative Jonathan Brostoff. In Committee
SB128 Programs and requirements to address PFAS. This bill creates several new programs and requirements relating to PFAS, which is defined in the bill to mean any perfluoroalkyl or polyfluoroalkyl substance. Municipal PFAS grant program The bill requires the Department of Natural Resources to create a municipal PFAS grant program, which applies only to types of PFAS for which there is a state or federal standard, a public health recommendation from the Department of Health Services, or a health advisory issued by the federal Environmental Protection Agency. Under the bill, the municipal PFAS grant program provides all of the following grants: 1. Grants to municipalities (defined under current law as a city, town, village, county, county utility district, town sanitary district, public inland lake protection and rehabilitation district, or metropolitan sewage district) for PFAS testing at municipal water systems and municipal wastewater treatment facilities, or for reimbursement for such testing if performed at properties owned, leased, managed, LRB-2168/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 128 or contracted for by municipalities and if there are promulgated standards for those types of PFAS. 2. Grants to nonmunicipal entities regulated as public or community water systems, distributed in equal shares up to $1,800, to test their drinking water supply for PFAS, if required to do so by DNR, or for reimbursement for such testing. 3. Grants to privately owned landfills, in equal shares up to $15,000, to test for the presence of PFAS in leachate. 4. Grants to municipalities to test for PFAS levels at municipally owned, leased, managed, or contracted locations where PFAS may be present, including testing for PFAS levels in leachate at landfills. If the property to be tested is not owned by the municipality, DNR may not issue a grant unless the property owner gives the municipality written consent to enter the property and conduct testing. These grants are not available to municipalities that receive a grant under this program to test for PFAS at municipal water systems and municipal wastewater treatment facilities. For these grants, DNR may require matching funds of up to 20 percent from the applicant. 5. Grants to municipalities and privately owned landfills to dispose of PFAS- containing biosolids or leachate at facilities that accept such biosolids or leachate or to purchase and install on-site treatment systems to address PFAS contained in biosolids or leachate. For these grants, DNR may require matching funds of up to 20 percent from the applicant and the grants may not be used for costs associated with landspreading. 6. Grants for capital costs or debt service, including for facility upgrades or new infrastructure, to municipalities that are small or disadvantaged or in which rates for water or wastewater utilities will increase by more than 20 percent as a direct result of steps taken to address PFAS contamination. When issuing these grants, DNR must give priority to projects that are necessary to address an exceedence of an applicable state or federal standard. 7. Grants to municipalities for capital costs or other costs related to PFAS that are not otherwise paid from the segregated environmental improvement fund, including costs for addressing landfills or other contaminated lands owned, leased, managed, or contracted for by municipalities or costs incurred by fire departments; grants to municipalities for the preparation and implementation of pollutant minimization plans; and grants to municipalities for costs incurred by public utilities or metropolitan sewerage districts for pretreatment or other PFAS reduction measures in certain circumstances. For these grants, DNR may require matching funds of up to 20 percent from the applicant. For all of the grants provided under the municipal PFAS grant program, DNR may not require a grant recipient to take any action to address PFAS unless PFAS levels exceed any applicable standard under state or federal law. The bill also prohibits DNR from publicly disclosing the results of any PFAS testing conducted under this grant program unless DNR notifies the grant recipient at least 72 hours before publicly disclosing any test result, with certain exceptions. LRB-2168/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 128 Current law provides that whenever a state agency is authorized to provide state funds to any county, city, village, or town for any purpose, funds may also be granted by that agency to any federally recognized tribal governing body for the same purpose. Innocent landowner grant program The bill also requires DNR to create an innocent landowner grant program, which applies only to types of PFAS for which there is a state or federal standard, a public health recommendation from the Department of Health Services, or a health advisory issued by the federal Environmental Protection Agency. Under the program, DNR may provide grants to an eligible person or to a person who is applying on behalf of multiple eligible persons that are located in the same geographic region, if the applicant will be the entity performing any authorized activities. Under the program, an Xeligible personY is 1) a person that spread biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS in compliance with any applicable license or permit, 2) a person that owns land upon which biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS were spread in compliance with any applicable license or permit, 3) a fire department, public-use airport, or municipality that responded to emergencies that required the use of PFAS or that conducted training for such emergencies in compliance with applicable federal regulations, 4) a solid waste disposal facility that accepted PFAS, and 5) a person that owns, leases, manages, or contracts for property on which the PFAS contamination did not originate, unless the person also owns, leases, manages, or contracts for the property on which the PFAS discharge originated. The total amount of grants awarded to each eligible person may not exceed $250,000 and DNR may require grant recipients to provide matching funds of not more than 5 percent of the grant amount. Under current law provisions known as the Xspills law,Y a person that possesses or controls a hazardous substance or that causes the discharge of a hazardous substance must notify DNR immediately, restore the environment to the extent practicable, and minimize the harmful effects from the discharge. If action is not being adequately taken, or the identity of the person responsible for the discharge is unknown, DNR may take emergency action to contain or remove the hazardous substance; the person that possessed or controlled the hazardous substance that was discharged or that caused the discharge of the hazardous substance must then reimburse DNR for expenses DNR incurred in taking such emergency actions. The spills law allows DNR to enter property to take emergency action if entry is necessary to prevent increased environmental damages, and to inspect any record relating to a hazardous substance for the purpose of determining compliance with the spills law. DNR may also require that preventive measures be taken by any person possessing or having control over a hazardous substance if existing control measures are inadequate to prevent discharges. Spills law exemptions Under the bill, if a person is eligible for a grant under the innocent landowner LRB-2168/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 128 grant program, the person is exempt from all of the provisions under the spills law described above with respect to PFAS contamination, if the person grants DNR permission to remediate the land at DNR[s expense. If a person is not eligible for a grant under the innocent landowner grant program, the person is exempt from all of the provisions under the spills law described above, based on the results of any PFAS testing conducted on samples taken from lands not owned by the state, unless PFAS levels violate any applicable state or federal law, including any standard promulgated under state or federal law. Limitations on DNR actions relating to PFAS Under the bill, DNR may not prevent, delay, or otherwise impede any construction project or project of public works based on a presence of PFAS contamination unless DNR determines that 1) the project poses a substantial risk to public health or welfare, 2) there is a substantial risk that the project will create worsening environmental conditions, 3) the entity proposing to complete the project is responsible for the original contamination, as a result of conduct that was reckless or was done with the intent to discharge PFAS into the environment, or 4) DNR is specifically required under the federal Clean Water Act to prevent, delay, or otherwise impede the project. XPublic worksY is defined to mean the physical structures and facilities developed or acquired by a local unit of government or a federally recognized American Indian tribe or band in this state to provide services and functions for the benefit and use of the public, including water, sewerage, waste disposal, utilities, and transportation, and privately owned landfills that accept residential waste. In addition, under the bill, if DNR seeks to collect samples from lands not owned by the state based on permission from the landowner, such permission must be in writing, and DNR must notify the landowner that such permission includes the authority to collect samples, to test those samples, and to publicly disclose the results of that testing. The landowner may revoke such permission at any time prior to the collection of samples. Under the bill, DNR also may not publicly disclose such PFAS testing results unless it notifies the landowner of the test results at least 72 hours before publicly disclosing them. The bill also requires DNR, or a third-party contract by DNR, to respond in a timely manner to requests from any person to conduct PFAS testing on samples taken from the person[s property if practicable and if funds are available to do so, if there is a reasonable belief that PFAS contamination may be present on the property, and if existing information such as public water supply testing data is not available. The bill also requires DNR, in the 2025-27 fiscal biennium, to increase its voluntary PFAS testing activities. Firefighting foam The bill requires DNR to survey or resurvey local fire departments about their use and possession of PFAS-containing firefighting foam, send communications and LRB-2168/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 128 information regarding PFAS-containing firefighting foam, and contract with a third party to voluntarily collect PFAS-containing firefighting foam. Well compensation grant program Under current law, an individual owner or renter of a contaminated private well, subject to eligibility requirements, may apply for a grant from DNR to cover a portion of the costs to treat the water, reconstruct the well, construct a new well, connect to a public water supply, or fill and seal the well. The bill provides that a grant for costs to treat the water may be used to cover the cost of a filtration device and up to two replacement filters. In addition, under the bill, if DNR determines that a claimant who is applying for a grant under the well compensation grant program on the basis of PFAS contamination would be eligible for a grant under the innocent landowner grant program created under the bill, and funding under that program is available, DNR must refer the claimant[s application to that program instead of processing it under the well compensation grant program. If the claimant is denied under the innocent landowner grant program, DNR must refer the claim back to the well compensation grant program. Portable water treatment system pilot project The bill requires DNR to contract with an entity to conduct a pilot project in which PFAS-contaminated surface water is partially or fully diverted to a portable treatment system and treated water is returned to the surface water. DNR and the entity must conduct tests to evaluate the success of the pilot project. Remedial action at sites contaminated by PFAS The bill allows DNR, or a contracted third party, to begin response and remedial actions, including site investigations, at any PFAS-contaminated site where a responsible party has not been identified or where the responsible party qualifies for a grant under the innocent landowner grant program. The bill directs DNR to prioritize response and remedial actions at sites that have the highest levels of PFAS contamination and sites with the greatest threats to public health or the environment because of PFAS. Assistance for testing laboratories The bill requires DNR and the Board of Regents of the University of Wisconsin System to enter into a memorandum of understanding to ensure that the state laboratory of hygiene provides guidance and other materials, conducts training, and provides assistance to laboratories in this state that are certified to test for contaminants other than PFAS in order for them to become certified to test for PFAS, and to assist laboratories certified to test for PFAS in this state to reduce their testing costs and shorten the timeline for receiving test results. Under the bill, the Board of Regents, in coordination with DNR, may provide grants to laboratories in this state that are certified to test for PFAS, or that are seeking such certification, to assist with up to 40 percent of the costs of purchasing equipment necessary for testing for PFAS. LRB-2168/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 128 The bill requires the state laboratory of hygiene to prepare a report on these efforts and provide the report to the legislature. PFAS studies and reporting The bill requires DNR and the Board of Regents of the University of Wisconsin System to enter into a memorandum of understanding to 1) study and analyze the cost, feasibility, and effectiveness of different methods of treating PFAS before they are released into a water system or water body; 2) conduct a cost-benefit analysis of different options for disposing of biosolids or sludge that contains or may contain PFAS; 3) study and analyze the cost, feasibility, and effectiveness of different destruction and disposal methods for PFAS; 4) study and analyze the cost, feasibility, and effectiveness of different methods for remediating PFAS that leave the contaminated medium in place and methods that remove the contaminated medium; 5) study and analyze the migration of PFAS into the bay of Green Bay; 6) study and analyze the migration of PFAS into the Wisconsin and Mississippi Rivers and their tributaries; 7) conduct any additional studies related to PFAS, as approved by the Joint Committee on Finance; and 8) create a comprehensive, interactive map showing all available PFAS testing data and, for each data point, whether it exceeds any applicable state or federal standard for PFAS. Such data may not contain any personally identifiable information unless the entity to which the data applies is a municipal entity that is required to test and disclose its results under state law. DNR reporting requirements The bill requires DNR to report to the legislature once every six months for a period of three years to provide a detailed description of DNR[s expenditures under the bill and a detailed description of DNR[s progress in implementing the provisions of the bill. Clean Water Fund Program and Safe Drinking Water Loan Program Under current law, the Department of Administration and DNR administer the Safe Drinking Water Loan Program (SDWLP), which provides financial assistance to municipalities, and to the private owners of community water systems that serve municipalities, for projects that will help the municipalities comply with federal drinking water standards. DNR establishes a funding priority list for SDWLP projects, and DOA allocates funding for those projects. Also under current law, DNR administers the Clean Water Fund Program (CWFP), which provides financial assistance to municipalities for projects to control water pollution, such as sewage treatment plants. Under the bill, if DNR, when ranking SDWLP or CWFP projects or determining an applicant[s eligibility for assistance under those programs, considers whether an applicant that intends to extend service outside municipal boundaries because of water contamination is XsmallY or Xdisadvantaged,Y DNR must determine the applicant to be small or disadvantaged if the area receiving the extended service would normally be determined to be small or disadvantaged, LRB-2168/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 128 regardless of whether the existing service area would normally be determined to be small or disadvantaged. Public water utility projects Under current law, a public utility may not engage in certain construction, expansion, or other projects unless the Public Service Commission grants a certificate of authority (CA) for the proposed project. Under the bill, if a water public utility or a combined water and sewer public utility (water utility) fails to obtain a CA before commencing a project for which one is required, PSC may not investigate, impose a penalty against, or bring an action to enjoin the water utility if 1) the water utility undertook the project in response to a public health concern caused by PFAS, the presence of which was unknown to the water utility until shortly before it commenced the project, and the water utility provides evidence showing that the utility has exceeded or is likely to exceed the applicable state or federal standard for that type of PFAS; 2) the water utility promptly notifies PSC of the work and, within 30 days after commencing the work, submits the appropriate application and supporting documentation to PSC; and 3) the total cost of the project is not greater than $2,000,000. In the PSC administrative code, the bill adds an emergency resulting from water supply contamination to the circumstances under which PSC authorization is not necessary prior to a utility beginning necessary repair work. The current administrative code limits this to an emergency resulting from the failure of power supply or from fire, storm, or similar events. Use of revenue for PFAS source reduction measures The bill authorizes a municipal public utility or metropolitan sewerage district to use revenues from its water or sewerage services for up to half of the cost of pretreatment or other PFAS source reduction measures for an interconnected customer or other regular customer if the costs incurred are less than the costs of the upgrades otherwise required at the endpoint treatment facility and if the costs are approved by the governing body of the municipality or the metropolitan sewerage district. Test wells for community water systems Under rules promulgated by DNR relating to community water systems (a system for providing piped water for human consumption to the public and that serves at least 15 service connections used by year-round residents or regularly serves at least 25 year-round residents), DNR must preapprove any test wells that will be converted into permanent wells and any test wells that will pump at least 70 gallons per minute for more than 72 hours. DNR rules require test wells to be drilled for permanent wells for community water systems to determine geologic formation information and water quality and quantity data. DNR rules also allow DNR to designate special well casing depth areas within which wells must be drilled to a greater depth and meet other requirements to avoid contamination. This bill provides that test wells for community water systems must also be LRB-2168/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 128 approved by DNR if they are located in special well casing depth areas that have been designated based in whole or in part on the presence of PFAS. In Committee
SB127 Exempting certain persons from PFAS enforcement actions under the spills law. (FE) Under current law provisions known as the Xspills law,Y a person that possesses or controls a hazardous substance or that causes the discharge of a hazardous substance must notify the Department of Natural Resources immediately, restore the environment to the extent practicable, and minimize the harmful effects from the discharge. If action is not being adequately taken, or the identity of the person responsible for the discharge is unknown, DNR may take emergency action to contain or remove the hazardous substance; the person that possessed or controlled the hazardous substance that was discharged or that caused the discharge of the hazardous substance must then reimburse DNR for expenses DNR incurred in taking such emergency actions. The spills law allows DNR to enter property to take emergency action if entry is necessary to prevent increased environmental damages, and to inspect any record relating to a hazardous substance for the purpose of determining compliance with the spills law. DNR may also require that preventive measures be taken by any person possessing or having control over a hazardous substance if existing control measures are inadequate to prevent discharges. The bill exempts the following persons from all of these provisions under the spills law, if the person grants DNR permission to remediate the land at DNR[s expense: LRB-2170/1 MCP:skw/wlj/emw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 127 1. A person that spread biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS in compliance with any applicable license or permit. 2. A person that owns land upon which biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS were spread in compliance with any applicable license or permit. 3. A fire department, public-use airport, or municipality that responded to emergencies that required the use of PFAS or that conducted training for such emergencies in compliance with applicable federal regulations. 4. A solid waste disposal facility that accepted PFAS. 5. A person that owns, leases, manages, or contracts for property on which the PFAS contamination did not originate, unless the person also owns, leases, manages, or contracts for the property on which the PFAS discharge originated. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB130 Exempting certain persons from PFAS enforcement actions under the spills law. (FE) Under current law provisions known as the Xspills law,Y a person that possesses or controls a hazardous substance or that causes the discharge of a hazardous substance must notify the Department of Natural Resources immediately, restore the environment to the extent practicable, and minimize the harmful effects from the discharge. If action is not being adequately taken, or the identity of the person responsible for the discharge is unknown, DNR may take emergency action to contain or remove the hazardous substance; the person that possessed or controlled the hazardous substance that was discharged or that caused the discharge of the hazardous substance must then reimburse DNR for expenses DNR incurred in taking such emergency actions. The spills law allows DNR to enter property to take emergency action if entry is necessary to prevent increased environmental damages, and to inspect any record relating to a hazardous substance for the purpose of determining compliance with the spills law. DNR may also require that preventive measures be taken by any person possessing or having control over a hazardous substance if existing control measures are inadequate to prevent discharges. The bill exempts the following persons from all of these provisions under the spills law, if the person grants DNR permission to remediate the land at DNR[s expense: 1. A person that spread biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS in compliance with any applicable license or permit. 2. A person that owns land upon which biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS were spread in compliance with any applicable license or permit. 3. A fire department, public-use airport, or municipality that responded to emergencies that required the use of PFAS or that conducted training for such emergencies in compliance with applicable federal regulations. 4. A solid waste disposal facility that accepted PFAS. 5. A person that owns, leases, manages, or contracts for property on which the PFAS contamination did not originate, unless the person also owns, leases, manages, or contracts for the property on which the PFAS discharge originated. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB131 Programs and requirements to address PFAS. This bill creates several new programs and requirements relating to PFAS, which is defined in the bill to mean any perfluoroalkyl or polyfluoroalkyl substance. Municipal PFAS grant program The bill requires the Department of Natural Resources to create a municipal PFAS grant program, which applies only to types of PFAS for which there is a state or federal standard, a public health recommendation from the Department of Health Services, or a health advisory issued by the federal Environmental Protection Agency. Under the bill, the municipal PFAS grant program provides all of the following grants: 1. Grants to municipalities (defined under current law as a city, town, village, county, county utility district, town sanitary district, public inland lake protection and rehabilitation district, or metropolitan sewage district) for PFAS testing at municipal water systems and municipal wastewater treatment facilities, or for reimbursement for such testing if performed at properties owned, leased, managed, or contracted for by municipalities and if there are promulgated standards for those types of PFAS. 2. Grants to nonmunicipal entities regulated as public or community water systems, distributed in equal shares up to $1,800, to test their drinking water supply for PFAS, if required to do so by DNR, or for reimbursement for such testing. 3. Grants to privately owned landfills, in equal shares up to $15,000, to test for the presence of PFAS in leachate. 4. Grants to municipalities to test for PFAS levels at municipally owned, leased, managed, or contracted locations where PFAS may be present, including testing for PFAS levels in leachate at landfills. If the property to be tested is not owned by the municipality, DNR may not issue a grant unless the property owner gives the municipality written consent to enter the property and conduct testing. These grants are not available to municipalities that receive a grant under this program to test for PFAS at municipal water systems and municipal wastewater treatment facilities. For these grants, DNR may require matching funds of up to 20 percent from the applicant. 5. Grants to municipalities and privately owned landfills to dispose of PFAS- containing biosolids or leachate at facilities that accept such biosolids or leachate or to purchase and install on-site treatment systems to address PFAS contained in biosolids or leachate. For these grants, DNR may require matching funds of up to 20 percent from the applicant and the grants may not be used for costs associated with landspreading. 6. Grants for capital costs or debt service, including for facility upgrades or new infrastructure, to municipalities that are small or disadvantaged or in which rates for water or wastewater utilities will increase by more than 20 percent as a direct result of steps taken to address PFAS contamination. When issuing these grants, DNR must give priority to projects that are necessary to address an exceedence of an applicable state or federal standard. 7. Grants to municipalities for capital costs or other costs related to PFAS that are not otherwise paid from the segregated environmental improvement fund, including costs for addressing landfills or other contaminated lands owned, leased, managed, or contracted for by municipalities or costs incurred by fire departments; grants to municipalities for the preparation and implementation of pollutant minimization plans; and grants to municipalities for costs incurred by public utilities or metropolitan sewerage districts for pretreatment or other PFAS reduction measures in certain circumstances. For these grants, DNR may require matching funds of up to 20 percent from the applicant. For all of the grants provided under the municipal PFAS grant program, DNR may not require a grant recipient to take any action to address PFAS unless PFAS levels exceed any applicable standard under state or federal law. The bill also prohibits DNR from publicly disclosing the results of any PFAS testing conducted under this grant program unless DNR notifies the grant recipient at least 72 hours before publicly disclosing any test result, with certain exceptions. Current law provides that whenever a state agency is authorized to provide state funds to any county, city, village, or town for any purpose, funds may also be granted by that agency to any federally recognized tribal governing body for the same purpose. Innocent landowner grant program The bill also requires DNR to create an innocent landowner grant program, which applies only to types of PFAS for which there is a state or federal standard, a public health recommendation from the Department of Health Services, or a health advisory issued by the federal Environmental Protection Agency. Under the program, DNR may provide grants to an eligible person or to a person who is applying on behalf of multiple eligible persons that are located in the same geographic region, if the applicant will be the entity performing any authorized activities. Under the program, an Xeligible personY is 1) a person that spread biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS in compliance with any applicable license or permit, 2) a person that owns land upon which biosolids or wastewater residuals contaminated by PFAS were spread in compliance with any applicable license or permit, 3) a fire department, public-use airport, or municipality that responded to emergencies that required the use of PFAS or that conducted training for such emergencies in compliance with applicable federal regulations, 4) a solid waste disposal facility that accepted PFAS, and 5) a person that owns, leases, manages, or contracts for property on which the PFAS contamination did not originate, unless the person also owns, leases, manages, or contracts for the property on which the PFAS discharge originated. The total amount of grants awarded to each eligible person may not exceed $250,000 and DNR may require grant recipients to provide matching funds of not more than 5 percent of the grant amount. Under current law provisions known as the Xspills law,Y a person that possesses or controls a hazardous substance or that causes the discharge of a hazardous substance must notify DNR immediately, restore the environment to the extent practicable, and minimize the harmful effects from the discharge. If action is not being adequately taken, or the identity of the person responsible for the discharge is unknown, DNR may take emergency action to contain or remove the hazardous substance; the person that possessed or controlled the hazardous substance that was discharged or that caused the discharge of the hazardous substance must then reimburse DNR for expenses DNR incurred in taking such emergency actions. The spills law allows DNR to enter property to take emergency action if entry is necessary to prevent increased environmental damages, and to inspect any record relating to a hazardous substance for the purpose of determining compliance with the spills law. DNR may also require that preventive measures be taken by any person possessing or having control over a hazardous substance if existing control measures are inadequate to prevent discharges. Spills law exemptions Under the bill, if a person is eligible for a grant under the innocent landowner grant program, the person is exempt from all of the provisions under the spills law described above with respect to PFAS contamination, if the person grants DNR permission to remediate the land at DNR[s expense. If a person is not eligible for a grant under the innocent landowner grant program, the person is exempt from all of the provisions under the spills law described above, based on the results of any PFAS testing conducted on samples taken from lands not owned by the state, unless PFAS levels violate any applicable state or federal law, including any standard promulgated under state or federal law. Limitations on DNR actions relating to PFAS Under the bill, DNR may not prevent, delay, or otherwise impede any construction project or project of public works based on a presence of PFAS contamination unless DNR determines that 1) the project poses a substantial risk to public health or welfare, 2) there is a substantial risk that the project will create worsening environmental conditions, 3) the entity proposing to complete the project is responsible for the original contamination, as a result of conduct that was reckless or was done with the intent to discharge PFAS into the environment, or 4) DNR is specifically required under the federal Clean Water Act to prevent, delay, or otherwise impede the project. XPublic worksY is defined to mean the physical structures and facilities developed or acquired by a local unit of government or a federally recognized American Indian tribe or band in this state to provide services and functions for the benefit and use of the public, including water, sewerage, waste disposal, utilities, and transportation, and privately owned landfills that accept residential waste. In addition, under the bill, if DNR seeks to collect samples from lands not owned by the state based on permission from the landowner, such permission must be in writing, and DNR must notify the landowner that such permission includes the authority to collect samples, to test those samples, and to publicly disclose the results of that testing. The landowner may revoke such permission at any time prior to the collection of samples. Under the bill, DNR also may not publicly disclose such PFAS testing results unless it notifies the landowner of the test results at least 72 hours before publicly disclosing them. The bill also requires DNR, or a third-party contract by DNR, to respond in a timely manner to requests from any person to conduct PFAS testing on samples taken from the person[s property if practicable and if funds are available to do so, if there is a reasonable belief that PFAS contamination may be present on the property, and if existing information such as public water supply testing data is not available. The bill also requires DNR, in the 2025-27 fiscal biennium, to increase its voluntary PFAS testing activities. Firefighting foam The bill requires DNR to survey or resurvey local fire departments about their use and possession of PFAS-containing firefighting foam, send communications and information regarding PFAS-containing firefighting foam, and contract with a third party to voluntarily collect PFAS-containing firefighting foam. Well compensation grant program Under current law, an individual owner or renter of a contaminated private well, subject to eligibility requirements, may apply for a grant from DNR to cover a portion of the costs to treat the water, reconstruct the well, construct a new well, connect to a public water supply, or fill and seal the well. The bill provides that a grant for costs to treat the water may be used to cover the cost of a filtration device and up to two replacement filters. In addition, under the bill, if DNR determines that a claimant who is applying for a grant under the well compensation grant program on the basis of PFAS contamination would be eligible for a grant under the innocent landowner grant program created under the bill, and funding under that program is available, DNR must refer the claimant[s application to that program instead of processing it under the well compensation grant program. If the claimant is denied under the innocent landowner grant program, DNR must refer the claim back to the well compensation grant program. Portable water treatment system pilot project The bill requires DNR to contract with an entity to conduct a pilot project in which PFAS-contaminated surface water is partially or fully diverted to a portable treatment system and treated water is returned to the surface water. DNR and the entity must conduct tests to evaluate the success of the pilot project. Remedial action at sites contaminated by PFAS The bill allows DNR, or a contracted third party, to begin response and remedial actions, including site investigations, at any PFAS-contaminated site where a responsible party has not been identified or where the responsible party qualifies for a grant under the innocent landowner grant program. The bill directs DNR to prioritize response and remedial actions at sites that have the highest levels of PFAS contamination and sites with the greatest threats to public health or the environment because of PFAS. Assistance for testing laboratories The bill requires DNR and the Board of Regents of the University of Wisconsin System to enter into a memorandum of understanding to ensure that the state laboratory of hygiene provides guidance and other materials, conducts training, and provides assistance to laboratories in this state that are certified to test for contaminants other than PFAS in order for them to become certified to test for PFAS, and to assist laboratories certified to test for PFAS in this state to reduce their testing costs and shorten the timeline for receiving test results. Under the bill, the Board of Regents, in coordination with DNR, may provide grants to laboratories in this state that are certified to test for PFAS, or that are seeking such certification, to assist with up to 40 percent of the costs of purchasing equipment necessary for testing for PFAS. The bill requires the state laboratory of hygiene to prepare a report on these efforts and provide the report to the legislature. PFAS studies and reporting The bill requires DNR and the Board of Regents of the University of Wisconsin System to enter into a memorandum of understanding to 1) study and analyze the cost, feasibility, and effectiveness of different methods of treating PFAS before they are released into a water system or water body; 2) conduct a cost-benefit analysis of different options for disposing of biosolids or sludge that contains or may contain PFAS; 3) study and analyze the cost, feasibility, and effectiveness of different destruction and disposal methods for PFAS; 4) study and analyze the cost, feasibility, and effectiveness of different methods for remediating PFAS that leave the contaminated medium in place and methods that remove the contaminated medium; 5) study and analyze the migration of PFAS into the bay of Green Bay; 6) study and analyze the migration of PFAS into the Wisconsin and Mississippi Rivers and their tributaries; 7) conduct any additional studies related to PFAS, as approved by the Joint Committee on Finance; and 8) create a comprehensive, interactive map showing all available PFAS testing data and, for each data point, whether it exceeds any applicable state or federal standard for PFAS. Such data may not contain any personally identifiable information unless the entity to which the data applies is a municipal entity that is required to test and disclose its results under state law. DNR reporting requirements The bill requires DNR to report to the legislature once every six months for a period of three years to provide a detailed description of DNR[s expenditures under the bill and a detailed description of DNR[s progress in implementing the provisions of the bill. Clean Water Fund Program and Safe Drinking Water Loan Program Under current law, the Department of Administration and DNR administer the Safe Drinking Water Loan Program (SDWLP), which provides financial assistance to municipalities, and to the private owners of community water systems that serve municipalities, for projects that will help the municipalities comply with federal drinking water standards. DNR establishes a funding priority list for SDWLP projects, and DOA allocates funding for those projects. Also under current law, DNR administers the Clean Water Fund Program (CWFP), which provides financial assistance to municipalities for projects to control water pollution, such as sewage treatment plants. Under the bill, if DNR, when ranking SDWLP or CWFP projects or determining an applicant[s eligibility for assistance under those programs, considers whether an applicant that intends to extend service outside municipal boundaries because of water contamination is XsmallY or Xdisadvantaged,Y DNR must determine the applicant to be small or disadvantaged if the area receiving the extended service would normally be determined to be small or disadvantaged, regardless of whether the existing service area would normally be determined to be small or disadvantaged. Public water utility projects Under current law, a public utility may not engage in certain construction, expansion, or other projects unless the Public Service Commission grants a certificate of authority (CA) for the proposed project. Under the bill, if a water public utility or a combined water and sewer public utility (water utility) fails to obtain a CA before commencing a project for which one is required, PSC may not investigate, impose a penalty against, or bring an action to enjoin the water utility if 1) the water utility undertook the project in response to a public health concern caused by PFAS, the presence of which was unknown to the water utility until shortly before it commenced the project, and the water utility provides evidence showing that the utility has exceeded or is likely to exceed the applicable state or federal standard for that type of PFAS; 2) the water utility promptly notifies PSC of the work and, within 30 days after commencing the work, submits the appropriate application and supporting documentation to PSC; and 3) the total cost of the project is not greater than $2,000,000. In the PSC administrative code, the bill adds an emergency resulting from water supply contamination to the circumstances under which PSC authorization is not necessary prior to a utility beginning necessary repair work. The current administrative code limits this to an emergency resulting from the failure of power supply or from fire, storm, or similar events. Use of revenue for PFAS source reduction measures The bill authorizes a municipal public utility or metropolitan sewerage district to use revenues from its water or sewerage services for up to half of the cost of pretreatment or other PFAS source reduction measures for an interconnected customer or other regular customer if the costs incurred are less than the costs of the upgrades otherwise required at the endpoint treatment facility and if the costs are approved by the governing body of the municipality or the metropolitan sewerage district. Test wells for community water systems Under rules promulgated by DNR relating to community water systems (a system for providing piped water for human consumption to the public and that serves at least 15 service connections used by year-round residents or regularly serves at least 25 year-round residents), DNR must preapprove any test wells that will be converted into permanent wells and any test wells that will pump at least 70 gallons per minute for more than 72 hours. DNR rules require test wells to be drilled for permanent wells for community water systems to determine geologic formation information and water quality and quantity data. DNR rules also allow DNR to designate special well casing depth areas within which wells must be drilled to a greater depth and meet other requirements to avoid contamination. This bill provides that test wells for community water systems must also be approved by DNR if they are located in special well casing depth areas that have been designated based in whole or in part on the presence of PFAS. In Committee
SB18 Changes to the educational assessment program and the school and school district accountability report. (FE) Under current law, the Department of Public Instruction is required to annually publish a school and school district accountability report, commonly known as school and school district report cards, for the previous school year. To measure school performance and school district improvement for purposes of the report cards, particularly measures related to pupil achievement in reading and math, DPI uses data derived from pupil performance on assessments administered in the previous school year, including assessments commonly referred to as the Wisconsin Student Assessment System, which includes the Wisconsin Forward Exam, PreACT, the ACT with Writing, and Dynamic Learning Maps. Under the bill, beginning with report cards published for the school year in which the bill becomes law, for the index system to identify school and school district performance and improvement, also known as the accountability rating categories, DPI must use the same cut scores, score ranges, and corresponding qualitative descriptions that DPI used for report cards published in the 2019-20 LRB-0976/4 FFK:cjs&skw 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 18 school year. In addition, beginning with the WSAS administered in the school year in which the bill becomes law, DPI must do the following: 1. For the Wisconsin Forward exam in English Language Arts and Mathematics, align cut scores, score ranges, and pupil performance categories to the cut scores, score ranges, and pupil performance categories set by the National Assessment of Educational Progress. 2. For the PreACT and ACT with Writing in English, Reading, and Mathematics, use the same cut scores, score ranges, and pupil performance categories that DPI used for the same assessments administered in the 2021-22 school year. The bill specifically requires DPI to use the terms Xbelow basic,Y Xbasic,Y Xproficient,Y and XadvancedY for pupil performance categories on these assessments. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB119 Transfer of nursing home beds. Under current law, the Department of Health Services licenses nursing home beds and beds in facilities primarily serving the developmentally disabled and enforces a maximum limit on the number of these licensed beds in the state. A nursing home may transfer a licensed bed to another nursing home under certain circumstances, including that the receiving nursing home is within the same area for allocation of nursing home beds as is the transferring home, or is in a county adjoining that area, that the transferring nursing home and the receiving nursing home are owned by corporations that are owned by the same person, and that DHS reviews and approves the transfer. This bill repeals the transfer of nursing home beds. Instead, closed nursing home beds will be made available for distribution under procedures specified under current law. Under current law, DHS is required to redistribute nursing home beds within a county if the number of other nursing home beds for each 1,000 persons 65 years of age or over in the county is less than 80 percent of the statewide average and the total occupancy level for the other nursing homes in the county is equal to or more than the statewide average nursing home occupancy rate. Further, DHS must publish a notice at least once per year describing the number of beds that are available in each health planning area of the state. Nursing homes may then apply for any available beds. DHS is responsible for reviewing each application it receives and making decisions on each application using criteria specified by statute and any further criteria that DHS develops by rule. In Committee
AB60 Referendum questions for certain referenda that affect property taxes. (FE) Under current law, a county, city, village, town, school district, or technical college district may exceed its property tax levy limit if the electors of that political subdivision or district approve the increase at a referendum. The ballot question must indicate the dollar amount of the increase in the levy limit. Under this bill, the ballot question must also provide a good faith estimate of the annual dollar amount difference in property taxes on a median-valued, single-family residence located in the political subdivision or district that would result from passage of the referendum. Also under current law, in certain cases when local governmental units authorize the issuance of bonds, the local governmental unit must adopt a resolution stating the purpose of the bonding and the maximum amounts of borrowing. The local governmental unit, in certain cases, is required or authorized to seek approval of the bonding authorization at a referendum. Among other things, the referendum question must contain a statement of the purpose for which bonds are to be issued and the maximum amount of the bonds to be issued. Under the bill, the question must also provide all of the following: 1. The estimated interest rate and amount of the interest accruing on the bonds. 2. Any fees that will be incurred if the bonds are defeased. 3. A good faith estimate of the dollar amount difference in property taxes on a median-valued, single-family residence located in the local governmental unit that would result from passage of the referendum. For further information see the local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB38 An income tax exemption for cash tips paid to an employee. (FE) This bill creates an income tax exemption for cash tips received by an employee from the customers of the employee[s employer. Because this bill relates to an exemption from state or local taxes, it may be referred to the Joint Survey Committee on Tax Exemptions for a report to be printed as an appendix to the bill. For further information see the state fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SB30 Required instruction in civics in the elementary and high school grades, high school graduation requirements, and private school educational program criteria. (FE) Beginning in the 2027-28 school year, this bill requires school boards, independent charter schools, and private schools participating in a parental choice program to include in their respective curricula instruction in civics that includes the following topics and pupil development goals: 1. An understanding of pupils[ shared rights and responsibilities as residents of this state and the United States and of the founding principles of the United States. 2. A sense of civic pride and desire to participate regularly with government at the local, state, and federal levels. 3. An understanding of the process for effectively advocating before governmental bodies and officials. 4. An understanding of the civic-minded expectations of an upright and LRB-1842/1 FFK:wlj&cjs 2025 - 2026 Legislature SENATE BILL 30 desirable citizenry that recognizes and accepts responsibility for preserving and defending the benefits of liberty inherited from previous generations and secured by the U.S. Constitution. 5. Knowledge of other nations[ governing philosophies, including communism, socialism, and totalitarianism, and an understanding of how those philosophies compare with the philosophy and principles of freedom and representative democracy essential to the founding principles of the United States. The bill also requires school boards, independent charter schools, and private schools participating in a parental choice program to annually report to the Department of Public Instruction regarding how they are meeting the civics instruction requirement created under the bill. DPI must then compile the information and submit it to the legislature. Finally, under current law, a school board may grant a high school diploma to a pupil only if the pupil meets specific statutory requirements, including earning a certain number of credits in various subjects in the high school grades and passing a civics test comprised of questions that are identical to those that are asked as part of the process of applying for U.S. citizenship. Currently, a pupil must earn at least three credits of social studies, including state and local government. The bill specifies that the social studies credits also must include one-half credit of civics instruction. This graduation requirement first applies to pupils who graduate in the 2030-31 school year. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
AB3 Incorporating cursive writing into the state model English language arts standards and requiring cursive writing in elementary grades. (FE) This bill requires the state superintendent of public instruction to incorporate cursive writing into the model academic standards for English language arts. The bill also requires all school boards, independent charter schools, and private schools participating in a parental choice program to include cursive writing in its respective curriculum for the elementary grades. Specifically, each elementary school curriculum must include the objective that pupils be able to write legibly in cursive by the end of fifth grade. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
AB4 Required instruction in civics in the elementary and high school grades, high school graduation requirements, and private school educational program criteria. (FE) Beginning in the 2027-28 school year, this bill requires school boards, independent charter schools, and private schools participating in a parental choice program to include in their respective curricula instruction in civics that includes the following topics and pupil development goals: 1. An understanding of pupils’ shared rights and responsibilities as residents of this state and the United States and of the founding principles of the United States. 2. A sense of civic pride and desire to participate regularly with government at the local, state, and federal levels. 3. An understanding of the process for effectively advocating before governmental bodies and officials. 4. An understanding of the civic-minded expectations of an upright and desirable citizenry that recognizes and accepts responsibility for preserving and defending the benefits of liberty inherited from previous generations and secured by the U.S. Constitution. 5. Knowledge of other nations’ governing philosophies, including communism, socialism, and totalitarianism, and an understanding of how those philosophies compare with the philosophy and principles of freedom and representative democracy essential to the founding principles of the United States. The bill also requires school boards, independent charter schools, and private schools participating in a parental choice program to annually report to the Department of Public Instruction regarding how they are meeting the civics instruction requirement created under the bill. DPI must then compile the information and submit it to the legislature. Finally, under current law, a school board may grant a high school diploma to a pupil only if the pupil meets specific statutory requirements, including earning a certain number of credits in various subjects in the high school grades and passing a civics test comprised of questions that are identical to those that are asked as part of the process of applying for U.S. citizenship. Currently, a pupil must earn at least three credits of social studies, including state and local government. The bill specifies that the social studies credits also must include one-half credit of civics instruction. This graduation requirement first applies to pupils who graduate in the 2030-31 school year. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. Crossed Over
SB13 Incorporating cursive writing into the state model English language arts standards and requiring cursive writing in elementary grades. (FE) This bill requires the state superintendent of public instruction to incorporate cursive writing into the model academic standards for English language arts. The bill also requires all school boards, independent charter schools, and private schools participating in a parental choice program to include cursive writing in its respective curriculum for the elementary grades. Specifically, each elementary school curriculum must include the objective that pupils be able to write legibly in cursive by the end of fifth grade. For further information see the state and local fiscal estimate, which will be printed as an appendix to this bill. In Committee
SJR9 Honoring the life and public service of Justice David T. Prosser Jr. Relating to: honoring the life and public service of Justice David T. Prosser Jr. In Committee
SJR4 The freedom to gather in places of worship during a state of emergency (second consideration). To amend section 18 of article I of the constitution; Relating to: the freedom to gather in places of worship during a state of emergency (second consideration). In Committee
AJR1 Requiring photographic identification to vote in any election (second consideration). To create section 1m of article III of the constitution; Relating to: requiring photographic identification to vote in any election (second consideration). In Committee
Bill Bill Name Motion Vote Date Vote
SB10 Access to public high schools for military recruiters. Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB10 Access to public high schools for military recruiters. Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB41 School safety grants and making an appropriation. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB41 School safety grants and making an appropriation. (FE) Senate: Senate Amendment 2 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB41 School safety grants and making an appropriation. (FE) Senate: Senate Amendment 1 adopted 06/18/2025 Yea
SB41 School safety grants and making an appropriation. (FE) Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
AB85 Recommendation to revoke extended supervision, parole, or probation if a person is charged with a crime. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 06/18/2025 Yea
AB87 Restitution orders following a conviction for human trafficking and restoration of the right to vote to a person barred from voting as a result of a felony conviction. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 06/18/2025 Yea
SB108 Sharing minors’ safety plans. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB108 Sharing minors’ safety plans. (FE) Senate: Senate Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB108 Sharing minors’ safety plans. (FE) Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB94 Civil action for injury or damages resulting from riot or vandalism, participation in a riot, prohibiting certain limitations or restrictions on law enforcement responses to riot or vandalism activity, and providing a penalty. Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB111 Transportation of minors for emergency detention. Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB111 Transportation of minors for emergency detention. Senate: Senate Amendment 2 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB111 Transportation of minors for emergency detention. Senate: Senate Amendment 1 adopted 06/18/2025 Yea
SB111 Transportation of minors for emergency detention. Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB106 Psychiatric residential treatment facilities, providing an exemption from emergency rule procedures, and granting rule-making authority. Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB106 Psychiatric residential treatment facilities, providing an exemption from emergency rule procedures, and granting rule-making authority. Senate: Senate Amendment 2 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB106 Psychiatric residential treatment facilities, providing an exemption from emergency rule procedures, and granting rule-making authority. Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
AB140 Limitations on the total value of taxable property that may be included in a tax incremental financing district created in the city of Port Washington. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 06/18/2025 Yea
SB179 Applying the motor vehicle fuel tax supplier’s administrative allowance to diesel fuel, a motor vehicle fuel tax refund for evaporation losses, and making an appropriation. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB184 Governmental restrictions based on the energy source of a motor vehicle or other device. Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB182 Emergency medical services education, tuition and materials reimbursement for emergency medical responders and emergency medical services practitioners, and a live 911 pilot program. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB182 Emergency medical services education, tuition and materials reimbursement for emergency medical responders and emergency medical services practitioners, and a live 911 pilot program. (FE) Senate: Senate Amendment 2 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB182 Emergency medical services education, tuition and materials reimbursement for emergency medical responders and emergency medical services practitioners, and a live 911 pilot program. (FE) Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB232 Grants to child advocacy centers. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
AB269 Delivery network couriers and transportation network drivers, Department of Financial Institutions’ approval to offer portable benefit accounts, providing for insurance coverage, modifying administrative rules related to accident and sickness insurance, and granting rule-making authority. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 06/18/2025 Yea
SB278 Sunset of the community-oriented policing-house grant program. Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB279 Grants to law enforcement agencies for data-sharing platforms. Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB283 Public protective services hearing protection assistance. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 06/18/2025 Yea
SB283 Public protective services hearing protection assistance. (FE) Senate: Senate Amendment 2 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SB283 Public protective services hearing protection assistance. (FE) Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 06/18/2025 Yea
SR5 Notifying the assembly and the governor that Timothy La Sage is elected senate sergeant at arms of the 2025-2026 senate. Senate: Adopted 06/18/2025 Yea
SR5 Notifying the assembly and the governor that Timothy La Sage is elected senate sergeant at arms of the 2025-2026 senate. Senate: Refused to refer to committee on Senate Organization 06/18/2025 Nay
SB33 Representations depicting nudity and providing a penalty. Senate: Read a third time and passed 05/15/2025 Yea
SB56 The use of federal capitalization grant funds for lead service line replacement. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 05/15/2025 Yea
SB56 The use of federal capitalization grant funds for lead service line replacement. (FE) Senate: Decision of the Chair stands as the judgment of the Senate 05/15/2025 Yea
SB56 The use of federal capitalization grant funds for lead service line replacement. (FE) Senate: Senate Substitute Amendment 1 rejected 05/15/2025 Yea
AB73 Statutory recognition of specialized treatment court and commercial court dockets. Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 05/15/2025 Yea
AB73 Statutory recognition of specialized treatment court and commercial court dockets. Senate: Decision of the Chair stands as the judgment of the Senate 05/15/2025 Yea
SB96 Exempting certain electric vehicle charging stations located at a residence from the electric vehicle charging tax. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 05/15/2025 Yea
SB125 A nuclear power siting study and time limits for taking final action on certain certificate of public convenience and necessity applications. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 05/15/2025 Yea
SB125 A nuclear power siting study and time limits for taking final action on certain certificate of public convenience and necessity applications. (FE) Senate: Decision of the Chair stands as the judgment of the Senate 05/15/2025 Yea
SB146 Prohibiting persons who have been convicted of a violent crime from changing their name and providing a penalty. Senate: Read a third time and passed 05/15/2025 Yea
SJR48 Congratulating Knights of Columbus Council 499 for achieving a century of compassionate commitment to service of the Church, their community, and their fellow man. Senate: Adopted 05/15/2025 Yea
SB23 Extension of eligibility under the Medical Assistance program for postpartum women. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 04/22/2025 Yea
SB24 Limitations on the total value of taxable property that may be included in, and the lifespan of, a tax incremental financing district created in the city of Middleton. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and passed 04/22/2025 Yea
SB66 Registration plate concealment devices and providing a penalty. Senate: Read a third time and passed 04/22/2025 Yea
SB66 Registration plate concealment devices and providing a penalty. Senate: Senate Amendment 1 rejected 04/22/2025 Yea
SB76 Dismissing or amending certain criminal charges and deferred prosecution agreements for certain crimes. Senate: Read a third time and passed 04/22/2025 Yea
SR3 Notifying the assembly and the governor that Cyrus Anderson is elected senate chief clerk of the 2025-2026 senate. Senate: Adopted 04/22/2025 Yea
SB5 Battery or threat to jurors and providing a penalty. Senate: Read a third time and passed 03/18/2025 Yea
SB4 Agreements for direct primary care. Senate: Read a third time and passed 03/18/2025 Yea
SB4 Agreements for direct primary care. Senate: Senate Amendment 1 rejected 03/18/2025 Yea
AB1 Changes to the educational assessment program and the school and school district accountability report. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 03/18/2025 Yea
SB25 Court-issued criminal complaints in officer-involved deaths. Senate: Read a third time and passed 03/18/2025 Yea
SJR7 Recognizing that the Wisconsin State Legislature supports nuclear power and fusion energy as clean energy sources that are critical to safely meeting Wisconsin’s growing energy demands and declaring the legislature’s commitment to the continuation and expansion of nuclear power and nuclear technologies, the development of nuclear technologies and fusion energy, and employing the leadership and resources necessary to support the development of and investment in nuclear power, fusion energy, and r Senate: Adopted 03/18/2025 Yea
AB96 Ratification of the agreement negotiated between the Board of Regents of the University of Wisconsin System and the Wisconsin State Building Trades Negotiating Committee, for the 2024-25 fiscal year, covering employees in the building trades crafts collective bargaining unit, and authorizing an expenditure of funds. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 03/18/2025 Yea
AB94 Ratification of the agreement negotiated between the State of Wisconsin and the Wisconsin State Building Trades Negotiating Committee, for the 2024-25 fiscal year, covering employees in the building trades crafts collective bargaining unit, and authorizing an expenditure of funds. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 03/18/2025 Yea
AB95 Ratification of the agreement negotiated between the University of Wisconsin-Madison and the Wisconsin State Building Trades Negotiating Committee, for the 2024-25 fiscal year, covering employees in the building trades crafts collective bargaining unit, and authorizing an expenditure of funds. (FE) Senate: Read a third time and concurred in 03/18/2025 Yea
SJR2 Requiring photographic identification to vote in any election (second consideration). Senate: Read a third time and adopted 01/08/2025 Yea
SR1 Notifying the assembly and the governor that the 2025-2026 senate is organized. Senate: Adopted 01/06/2025 Yea
SJR1 The session schedule for the 2025-2026 biennial session period. Senate: Adopted 01/06/2025 Yea
  Committee Position Rank
Detail Wisconsin Joint Legislative Council 6
Detail Wisconsin Senate Agriculture and Revenue Committee 4
Detail Wisconsin Senate Health Committee Chair 1
Detail Wisconsin Senate Mental Health, Substance Abuse Prevention, Children and Families Committee 3
State District Chamber Party Status Start Date End Date
WI Wisconsin Senate District 19 Senate Republican In Office 01/03/2023
WI Wisconsin Assembly District 55 Assembly Republican Out of Office 01/04/2021 01/07/2025